Your essay should be 1,000–1,200 words (4–5 pages), double-spaced, in APA format, and with 3 or more credible sources.

Your final exam essay gives you the opportunity to identify ethical problems faced by individuals or communities and propose reasonable solutions. You will apply theories we covered in this course, and interpret various issues using a number of ethical theoretical constructs, both traditional and contemporary.  You will analyze, evaluate, and distinguish between ethical theories to critique contemporary issues. This activity aligns with module outcomes 1 and 2.

Your essay should be 1,000–1,200 words (4–5 pages), double-spaced, in APA format, and with 3 or more credible sources. Begin your essay by choosing one issue from the list below, and then choose a total of 6 theories (from the subsequent 3 options) to analyze your issue.

Choose one issue from the categories below, about which you feel most passionate:

  • Animal Rights and Environmental Ethics
  • Business or Health Care Ethics
  • Cloning, Stem Cell Research, Genetic Issues
  • Civil Liberties
  • Death Penalty
  • Drug Policy
  • End of (Human) Life Issues
  • Global Justice and Injustice
  • Racism, Discrimination, Hate Crimes, Oppression
  • Sexuality
  • War and Terrorism

Analyze your chosen issue using 6 theories. Choose 2 from each of the 3 categories listed below.

Choose 2 from the primary list:

  • Utilitarian ethics
  • Kantian ethics
  • Virtue ethics

Choose another 2 from the traditional theories list:

  • Ethical Egoism
  • Ethical Relativism
  • Divine Command Theory
  • Natural Law Theory
  • Social Contract Theory

Choose an additional 2 theories from the contemporary or non-Western list:

  • African ethics
  • Eastern ethics
  • Feminist ethics or Care-based ethics
  • Postmodernism ethics
  • Environmental Theories (Ecofeminist, Deep Ecology…)

Technical Requirements:

  • 1,000–1,200 words in length (4–5 pages).
  • Formatted according to APA standards, using Times New Roman, 12-point font, double spacing, and one inch margins.

Writing and Content Requirements:

  • The introduction should explain the chosen issue in detail.
  • The thesis, argument, or focus of the essay should be evident in the introduction.
  • The body of the essay should:
    • explain the approaches by various philosophers and/or ethical theories.
    • analyze which approach(es) you find most compelling and explain why.
    • incorporate high quality ideas and key concepts from the ethical theories.
    • include some suggestions for the most practical solutions to your topic.
    • assess the future of your chosen topic in terms of solutions.
  • The entire essay should contain correct grammar, spelling, and syntax.
  • Please use transitions between paragraphs.
  • The essay should be documented by properly citing at least three or more credible sources.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

For this assignment you will select a marginalized group (veterans, minorities, individuals with disabilities, etc.) and write a paper of 1,750 to 2,100 words that can be used as a resource when working with an individual from the selected group. Use peer-reviewed resources to support your use of a specific career theory as well as interventions with this population. The paper should include the following:

  1. An explanation of who the population is and why it is important for this group to receive career counseling
  2. Statistics on the group (e.g., how large, how many have employment problems, how many utilize career counseling)
  3. Discussion of career counseling theory to be used with the group (e.g., Minnesota theory of work adjustment). Include evidence supporting the use of this theory in the general population as well as within the group. Please note: If none are available, it is important to indicate that as well.
  4. Basic plan for counseling utilizing chosen theory (e.g., interview, use of assessment tools, explanation of theory)
  5. Environmental/personal barriers that may prevent the client from finding work (e.g., disability, substance use history, felony, transportation, limited computer access)
  6. Local resources available to help the client obtain work (e.g., job center, training programs, support groups)
  7. Your conclusion on whether or not this plan is tenable and will work, based on the information listed above.
  8. A minimum of four scholarly references.

PLEASE MAKE SURE YOU COVER ALL 8 OF THE ABOVE. REFERENCES SHOULD NOT BE MORE THAN 5 YEARS OLD.

OUR CLASS REXTBOOK:

Brown, S.D., & Lent, R.W. (2013). Career development and counseling: Putting theory and research to work (2nd ed.). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. ISBN-13: 9781118063354.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

This assignment meets the following CACREP Standards:

2.F.4.a: Theories and models of career development, counseling, and decision making.

2.F.4.b. Approaches for conceptualizing the interrelationships among and between work, mental well-being, relationships, and other life roles and factors.

2.F.4.c. Processes for identifying and using career, avocational, educational, occupational and labor market information resources, technology, and information systems.

2.F.4.e. Strategies for assessing abilities, interests, values, personality and other factors that contribute to career development.

2.F.4.f. Strategies for career development program planning, organization, implementation, administration, and evaluation.

2.F.4.g. Strategies for advocating for diverse clients’ career and educational development and employment opportunities in a global economy.

2.F.4.h. Strategies for facilitating client skill development for career, educational, and life-work planning and management.

2.F.4.i. Methods of identifying and using assessment tools and techniques relevant to career planning and decision making.

2.F.4.j. Ethical and culturally relevant strategies for addressing career development.

PSY 550 Midterm Short Answers The 25 questions below are worth 4 points each. 1. What is the key difference between psychological testing and psychological assessment? 2. Name three estimates of a test’s inter-item consistency. 3. From the intelligence test data he gathered at Ellis Island, Henry Goddard concluded that many of the people attempting to immigrate to the United States were “feebleminded.” What was this claim based on? 4. What do test developers do to address test-taker guessing? 5. In order to conduct research using human subjects, a university requires researchers to complete an online ethics course and then correctly respond to all of the items of the test on that material. What kind of test could this BEST be characterized as? 6. As compared to one-on-one and face-to-face assessments, what is one disadvantage of CAPA? 7. According information presented in the modules, what are at least two characteristics about psychological traits? 8. The U.S. Navy is highly selective when it comes to applications for Navy SEAL training. What kind of distribution of test scores on a Navy SEAL Qualifying and Screening Examination administered to a class of high school seniors would be expected to yield? 9. Describe an anchor protocol. 10. What is a halo effect? 11. Why is a normal distribution of scores desirable? 12. Give an example of an incidental sample. 13. What kind of utility analysis is most likely to be utilized when the purpose is the answer some finance-related question with a dollars-and-cents? 14. What need did the first group intelligence testing fulfill? 15. What is the relationship between test reliability and standard error of measurement? 16. Jana takes a personality test administered by the True Compatibility Dating Service. According to the personalized, computerized personality profile that results, Jana learns that her need for exhibitionism is much greater than her need for stability. Since the test analyzes data only with regard to Jana, and no other client of the dating service, what kind of scoring was utilized? 17. What kinds of concerns or issues arise if accommodation is made for the purpose of administering a test? 18. What is the ultimate purpose or end point of a utility analysis? 19. The directions for scoring a particular motor ability test instruct the examiner to “give credit if the child holds his or her hands open most of the time.” Because what constitutes “most of the time” is not specifically defined, directions such as these could result in lowered reliability estimates for what kind of reliability? 20. Give an example of convergent evidence of construct validity. 21. What is coefficient alpha an expression of? 22. If someone tells you what their recently measured “IQ” is, what value is that person most likely giving you? 23. You are interested in developing a test for social adjustment in a college fraternity or sorority. You begin by interviewing persons who had graduated from college after having been a member of a fraternity or sorority for at least two years. What stage of test development are you in and what would you do next? 24. What factors affect the generalizability of findings from a particular test? 25. Describe the relationship between the cut score and the selection ratio. Essay Questions The essay questions below are worth 10 points each. 26. Identify at least three different tools of psychological assessment and review the benefits and liabilities of utilizing these tools. 27. Consider issues of diversity reviewed thus far in the course. Identify and discuss the issues of diversity related to psychological assessment and rights of test-takers with someone of a different culture, language background, and ability. 28. Describe the forms and sources of error and how error contributes to reliability. 29. Part of test utility includes cut scores. Describe two kinds of cut scores, two ways that cut scores are established, and at least two different problems that can arise with cut scores. 30. Compare and contrast what makes a good test with what makes a good test item.

PSY 550 Midterm
Short Answers
The 25 questions below are worth 4 points each.
1. What is the key difference between psychological testing and psychological assessment?
2. Name three estimates of a test’s inter-item consistency.
3. From the intelligence test data he gathered at Ellis Island, Henry Goddard concluded that many of the people attempting to immigrate to the United States were “feebleminded.” What was this claim based on?
4. What do test developers do to address test-taker guessing?
5. In order to conduct research using human subjects, a university requires researchers to complete an online ethics course and then correctly respond to all of the items of the test on that material. What kind of test could this BEST be characterized as?
6. As compared to one-on-one and face-to-face assessments, what is one disadvantage of CAPA?
7. According information presented in the modules, what are at least two characteristics about psychological traits?
8. The U.S. Navy is highly selective when it comes to applications for Navy SEAL training. What kind of distribution of test scores on a Navy SEAL Qualifying and Screening Examination administered to a class of high school seniors would be expected to yield?
9. Describe an anchor protocol.

10. What is a halo effect?
11. Why is a normal distribution of scores desirable?
12. Give an example of an incidental sample.
13. What kind of utility analysis is most likely to be utilized when the purpose is the answer some finance-related question with a dollars-and-cents?
14. What need did the first group intelligence testing fulfill?
15. What is the relationship between test reliability and standard error of measurement?
16. Jana takes a personality test administered by the True Compatibility Dating Service.

According to the personalized, computerized personality profile that results, Jana
learns that her need for exhibitionism is much greater than her need for stability.
Since the test analyzes data only with regard to Jana, and no other client of the dating service, what kind of scoring was utilized?
17. What kinds of concerns or issues arise if accommodation is made for the purpose of administering a test?

18. What is the ultimate purpose or end point of a utility analysis?

19. The directions for scoring a particular motor ability test instruct the examiner to “give credit if the child holds his or her hands open most of the time.” Because what constitutes “most of the time” is not specifically defined, directions such as these could result in lowered reliability estimates for what kind of reliability?

20. Give an example of convergent evidence of construct validity.
21. What is coefficient alpha an expression of?
22. If someone tells you what their recently measured “IQ” is, what value is that person most likely giving you?
23. You are interested in developing a test for social adjustment in a college fraternity or sorority. You begin by interviewing persons who had graduated from college after having been a member of a fraternity or sorority for at least two years. What stage of test development are you in and what would you do next?
24. What factors affect the generalizability of findings from a particular test?
25. Describe the relationship between the cut score and the selection ratio.

Essay Questions
The essay questions below are worth 10 points each.
26. Identify at least three different tools of psychological assessment and review the benefits and liabilities of utilizing these tools.
27. Consider issues of diversity reviewed thus far in the course. Identify and discuss the issues of diversity related to psychological assessment and rights of test-takers with someone of a different culture, language background, and ability.
28. Describe the forms and sources of error and how error contributes to reliability.
29. Part of test utility includes cut scores. Describe two kinds of cut scores, two ways that cut scores are established, and at least two different problems that can arise with cut scores.
30. Compare and contrast what makes a good test with what makes a good test item.

The following three questions are addressed in which phase of Dr. Ben Yishay’s six-stage model: Can this individual learn? If so, at what level of sophistication? Can the person improvise and problem-solve in unexpected situations?

Exam 4: Programs 10-13; Chaps. 2, 11, 12 and 15

# 1.1
(1 pts.) Roger is experiencing a memory loss that may be related to recently contracting herpes. Which of the following diagnoses would best fit his condition?

A) dissociative amnesia
B) retrograde amnesia
C) amnestic disorder due to a general medical condition
D) substance-induced amnestic disorder

# 1.2
(1 pts.) Ed, who suffers from dementia, has enormous difficulty getting dressed in the morning because he cannot plan and organize the behaviors necessary to complete the task. Ed’s difficulty is in the area of

A) executive function.
B) agnosia.
C) apraxia.
D) aphasia.

# 1.3
(1 pts.) Michael is in the late stages of AIDS and has become increasing forgetful, incoherent, and at times unresponsive. Which of the following DSM diagnoses would best characterize Michael’s cognitive deficits?

A) dementia due to HIV disease
B) dementia due to multiple etiologies
C) multi-infarct dementia
D) delirium due to a general medical condition

# 1.4
(1 pts.) Stanley has had multiple “mini”-strokes that have damaged his frontal lobes. This damage has produced a variety of problems for Stanley including difficulty communicating and making judgments. Additionally he has a difficult time remembering and processing new information. Stanley is suffering from

A) vascular dementia.
B) Pick’s disease.
C) Alzheimer’s disease.
D) Parkinson’s disease.

# 1.5
(1 pts.) Sally, a client with Alzheimer’s disease, is being taught a variety of ways to adapt to her memory loss. Her daily living activities are arranged around various cues intended to prompt certain activities. For example, to help her remember to brush, her toothbrush holder is attached to her bathroom door so the first thing she sees as she enters the bathroom is her toothbrush. This cueing technique is derived from which theory?

A) behavioral
B) humanistic
C) cognitive
D) psychodynamic

# 1.6
(1 pts.) A stroke patient suffers damage to Broca’s area in the left hemisphere. Based on this information, which of the following would this client be unable to do?

A) remember events prior to the stroke
B) remember things after the stroke
C) understand everyday speech
D) speak fluently

# 1.7
(1 pts.) Ginny has been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease and has come to the doctor’s office complaining that her son is trying to kill her. Which subtype of Alzheimer’s might she have?

A) with delirium
B) with delusions
C) with depressed mood
D) uncomplicated type

# 1.8
(1 pts.) Margaret was a mild-mannered and reserved bank teller. Recently though, her personality has changed radically. Although she is in her mid-eighties, she has become very impulsive and socially disinhibited. With what organic disorder might she be suffering?

A) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Huntingdon’s disease
D) Pick’s disease

# 1.9
(1 pts.) How might a clinician differentiate between the cognitive impairment seen in Alzheimer’s clients and the deficits seen in clients suffering from vascular dementia?

A) Alzheimer’s clients suffer from sudden cognitive losses; clients with vascular dementia suffer from gradual losses.
B) Alzheimer’s clients suffer from global cognitive losses; clients with vascular dementia suffer from selective losses.
C) Alzheimer’s clients suffer from selective cognitive losses; clients with vascular dementia suffer from global losses.
D) Alzheimer’s clients suffer from sudden cognitive losses; clients with vascular dementia suffer from global cognitive losses.

# 1.10
(1 pts.) Family therapy is useful in treating which aspects of Alzheimer’s disease?

A) the cognitive deficits experienced by the client
B) the unconscious conflicts producing the symptoms
C) the frustrations and concerns of family members trying to cope with the identified patient
D) the behavioral problems experienced by the client

# 1.11
(1 pts.) While Pete was out playing touch football with his friends, he tripped, fell, and bumped his head on the ground. Immediately afterward, he was very disoriented and kept asking his friends what time it was. Pete may have experienced

A) delirium.
B) dementia.
C) amnesia.
D) agnosia.

# 1.12
(1 pts.) George can understand what his doctor wants him to do when he asks him to cough and to touch his index finger to his nose, but he cannot perform these simple motor activities. George is suffering from

A) apraxia.
B) agnosia.
C) aphasia.
D) dyslexia.

# 1.13
(1 pts.) Why might recent research have indicated an increase in the total number of cases of Alzheimer’s disease in the past few years?

A) because of the trace amounts of aluminum added to municipal water supplies
B) because of the increased use of artificial sweeteners like saccharin
C) because of the increase in the total number of individuals living beyond 65
D) because of decreased amounts of ozone in the atmosphere

# 1.14
(1 pts.) While he is resting, Ray’s hands shake uncontrollably. At times his head appears to jerk from side to side. Ray may be showing the early symptoms of

A) Parkinson’s disease.
B) Pick’s disease.
C) Alzheimer’s disease.
D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

# 1.15
(1 pts.) Angie, an elderly woman, became depressed a few days ago and is now experiencing a memory loss. Based on this symptom pattern which of the following might she have?

A) Alzheimer’s disease
B) pseudodementia
C) vascular dementia
D) Huntington’s disease

# 1.16
(1 pts.) Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to suffer from delirium based on the information in the text?

A) Twenty-four-year old Megan, who has been hospitalized for pneumonia
B) Thirty-two-year old Steve, who is home with a bad case of the flu
C) Forty-five-year old Charles, who is in a mental hospital
D) Seventy-year old Margaret, who has been hospitalized for gallstones

# 1.17
(1 pts.) Mrs. Williams can recognize most of her friends by voice over the telephone, but when asked to identify her friends in pictures she is at a loss. She is apparently suffering from

A) dyslexia.
B) apraxia.
C) aphasia.
D) agnosia.

# 1.18
(1 pts.) Harry has recently been getting lost in the factory where he works. He is forgetting some of the names of his coworkers. He is having difficulty concentrating and his reading comprehension is poor. He denies having any memory problems but occasionally gets anxious over his confusion and forgetfulness. Which phase of dementia is he in?

A) forgetfulness
B) early confusional
C) late confusional
D) late dementia

# 1.19
(1 pts.) Donna is in her mid-twenties and has been experiencing involuntary muscle spasms which cause her to move in a jerky fashion. In addition, she has become very sexually impulsive. From what organic brain disorder might she be suffering?

A) Huntingdon’s disease
B) Pick’s disease
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Alzheimer’s disease

# 1.20
(1 pts.) Tommy is a 43-year-old man who has Down syndrome. Recent research indicates that he is likely to develop

A) Parkinson’s disease.
B) Alzheimer’s disease.
C) Pick’s disease.
D) multiple sclerosis.

# 1.21
(1 pts.) William is acutely retarded and requires intense care. His IQ has been measured at approximately 15. What term would be used to classify William’s level of retardation?

A) mild
B) moderate
C) severe
D) profound

# 1.22
(1 pts.) Shannon has been diagnosed with moderate mental retardation but attends most of her classes in a regular classroom in the central school in her district. This educational philosophy is best known as

A) mainstreaming.
B) ingratiation.
C) integration.
D) enclosure.

# 1.23
(1 pts.) Many children who are afflicted with autistic disorder insist upon a daily routine that is

A) flexible.
B) extremely rigid.
C) adaptable.
D) unstructured.

# 1.24
(1 pts.) Joshua has a specific developmental disorder that is characterized by the fact that words and letters get reversed when he is reading; for example the letter “b” looks like “d” and the word “frog” may look like “gorf.” This problem makes him read aloud in a slow and broken way. Joshua may have

A) disorder of written expression.
B) cluttering.
C) expressive language disorder.
D) dyslexia.

# 1.25
(1 pts.) Zack is a 14-year-old member of a ruthless street gang. He has been involved in a number of robberies, muggings, and incidents of arson. Zack might be diagnosed as having

A) oppositional-defiant disorder.
B) conduct disorder.
C) avoidant disorder.
D) antisocial personality disorder.

# 1.26
(1 pts.) Jamie is an eight-year-old who is deathly afraid of leaving his mother or father. Jamie’s school is located close to the office where his mother works, but she still has to leave work frequently because he cries uncontrollably when he starts thinking about his parents. Jamie might be diagnosed as suffering from

A) separation anxiety disorder.
B) overanxious disorder.
C) avoidant disorder.
D) rumination disorder.

# 1.27
(1 pts.) Keith has a severe tic disorder that manifests itself in his making constant belching noises. He also swears quite frequently and engages in a compulsive ritual involving touching red colored items at least five times. Keith may very well have

A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) transient tic disorder.
C) Asperger’s disorder.
D) Tourette’s disorder.

# 1.28
(1 pts.) The fact that Jason Newman, in the textbook case, gets attention from his peers and parents when he is disruptive might be an indication that which of the following might play a role in his disorder?

A) genetic flaws
B) primary gain
C) secondary gain
D) modeling

# 1.29
(1 pts.) Mrs. Johansen is pregnant and has accidentally been exposed to a person with German measles. She should be most concerned about the possibility of producing a child with mental retardation if she is in the

A) fetal period.
B) 35th week.
C) first trimester.
D) last trimester.

# 1.30
(1 pts.) At 12 months of age, it was evident that little Tony was unresponsive to people. He resisted the cuddling of his parents and became increasingly aloof. Tony might be diagnosed as having

A) Tay-Sachs disease.
B) separation anxiety disorder.
C) autistic disorder.
D) rumination disorder.

# 1.31
(1 pts.) Debbie is a little girl who has been diagnosed as having autistic disorder. Each time she engages in self-injurious behavior, like head-banging, her mother immediately runs over and attempts to stop her by holding her close. According to behavioral theorists, what might this attempt at stopping her behavior actually do?

A) It should decrease the behavior because children with autistic disorder dislike physical contact.
B) The attention her mother is giving Debbie is actually reinforcing, so the self-injurious behavior should increase.
C) The holding will actually frustrate Debbie, so she will head-bang even more.
D) Holding will have no effect on the self-injurious behavior, because autistic children are oblivious to the outside world.

# 1.32
(1 pts.) The prognosis for individuals with learning, communication, and motor skills disorders is;

A) poor unless they undergo complicated neurosurgery to correct their problems.
B) good if they are placed on medications designed to control their attentional difficulties.
C) fair if placed they are placed in remedial educational programs.
D) good if their learning environment provides more structure and fewer distractions.

# 1.33
(1 pts.) In many ways, Sally seems like a typical teenager. However, she repeatedly argues with her parents, refuses to do what she is told, and at times does things to deliberately annoy people. If this behavior pattern is relatively long-term, Sally might possibly have

A) conduct disorder.
B) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
C) rumination disorder.
D) oppositional defiant disorder.

# 1.34
(1 pts.) While eating, Lindsay often spits her food back up and rechews it. Assuming that this is a persistent problem, Lindsay might be diagnosed with

A) pica
B) feeding disorder of infancy or early childhood
C) rumination disorder
D) bulimia nervosa

# 1.35
(1 pts.) Frannie still wets the bed occasionally. Which of the following factors would be LEAST important in terms of her being diagnosed as having enuresis?

A) if she was ever successfully potty-trained
B) her current age
C) the frequency of her bed-wetting
D) the duration of her symptoms

# 1.36
(1 pts.) Based on the incidence of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome in various ethnic groups, which of the following individuals would be considered high risk?

A) a woman of French Canadian descent
B) a woman of Irish descent
C) a woman of Italian descent
D) a woman of Native American descent

# 1.37
(1 pts.) Five-year-old Julio appeared normal for the first two years of life. At age two there was a marked deterioration in his language, social, and motor skills. Julio might be diagnosed as having

A) Rett’s disorder.
B) childhood disintegrative disorder.
C) Asperger’s disorder.
D) autistic disorder.

# 1.38
(1 pts.) Cindy is in her first year of high school. She has always been viewed as a lazy student who just does not put any effort into her writing. Her spelling is terrible and the sentences she writes are disorganized and filled with syntactical errors. Rather than being lazy, Cindy may very well have a

A) dyslexic disorder.
B) mathematics disorder.
C) receptive language disorder.
D) disorder of written expression.

# 1.39
(1 pts.) Jeremy has a difficult time sitting still, and interrupts others, but generally can pay attention to what his teacher is saying as he moves around the room. Jeremy might be diagnosed with

A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, inattentive type.
B) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, hyperactive-impulsive type.
C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, combined type.
D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, overactive type.

# 1.40
(1 pts.) Which of the following children is MOST likely to benefit from behavioral interventions designed to treat conduct disorder?

A) Mason, who is 17 years old
B) Ted, who is 15 years old
C) James, who is 14 years old
D) Nathan, who is 11 years old

# 1.41
(1 pts.) Chris constantly runs around eating used matches and cigarette butts out of ashtrays. Chris might be diagnosed as having

A) pica.
B) rumination disorder.
C) anorexia.
D) stereotypic movement disorder.

# 1.42
(1 pts.) Parents who are neglectful during a child’s early years are likely to facilitate the development of

A) Tourette’s disorder.
B) reactive attachment disorder.
C) autistic disorder.
D) Down syndrome.

# 1.43
(1 pts.) John has been diagnosed as having Tourette’s syndrome and conduct disorder. Tourette’s syndrome and conduct disorder in this case are referred to as ___ disorders.

A) clinically significant
B) categorical
C) comorbid
D) polymorphous

# 1.44
(1 pts.) Dr. Green is an admitting psychologist at a psychiatric hospital. Unfortunately, every client she interviews receives the diagnosis of schizophrenia. Dr. Green’s diagnostic system ignores

A) reliability.
B) variance.
C) base rates.
D) treatment potential.

# 1.45
(1 pts.) Jack believes he is Jesus Christ and that he can walk on water. He claims he hears God talking to him every morning at 3:00 a.m. In general terms, Jack seems to be suffering from a

A) neurosis.
B) psychosis.
C) personality disorder.
D) prognosis.

# 1.46
(1 pts.) Susan and Ron are having marital difficulties; their difficulties are not due to any long standing psychological problems. How might a clinician document their difficulties? A clinician might

A) diagnose each as having a personality disorder.
B) diagnose each as having an adjustment disorder.
C) only list the information on Axis IV.
D) utilize one of the V codes in DSM-IV-TR

# 1.47
(1 pts.) Mrs. Waltham is 75 years old and has been brought in for treatment by her daughter. Her daughter claims that the elderly woman has become forgetful and has started fabricating stories about how she is a Bavarian princess and must return to her homeland to help the king. The clinician automatically diagnoses Mrs. Waltham as having schizophrenia. The clinician has obviously ignored what information in making this diagnosis?

A) the base rate for this disorder
B) the client’s age
C) the prevalence of this disorder
D) the client’s gender

# 1.48
(1 pts.) Dr. Burns is analyzing his client’s personal history in an attempt to identity the factors that may have produced his psychotic behavior. Dr. Burns is creating a(n)

A) assessment of global functioning.
B) final diagnosis.
C) case formulation.
D) treatment regimen.

# 1.49
(1 pts.) Donna’s clinician has requested that she undergo electroconvulsive therapy in an attempt to control her current, drastic suicidal impulses. What stage of treatment is she in?

A) immediate management
B) assessment of objectives
C) assessment of current functioning
D) management of objectives

# 1.50
(1 pts.) Michelle, who is recovering from schizophrenia, is being released from the psychiatric hospital because her symptoms are under control. Michelle’s living skills, however, are still inadequate since she has been institutionalized for quite some time. What will her therapist most likely suggest?

A) placement in an asylum
B) readmission to the psychiatric hospital
C) placement in a halfway house
D) admission to a sanitarium

# 1.51
(1 pts.) Dr. Reed has a PhD in clinical psychology and was trained in administering psychological tests. Dr. Davis has an MD with advanced training in treating psychological disorders and can prescribe medications. Dr. Reed is a ______ and Dr. Davis is a

A) psychiatrist; psychologist
B) psychologist; psychiatrist
C) psychologist; neurologist
D) social worker; psychologist

# 1.52
(1 pts.) A man arrives one hour late for work every day because he is compelled to read every street sign on the road to his workplace. Which of the following components of a mental disorder is exemplified by his behavior?

A) It reflects a behavioral syndrome.
B) It is associated with impairment in life.
C) It is a culturally sanctioned response.
D) It reflects a serious risk.

# 1.53
(1 pts.) The notion that disorders involving a loss of identity fit into a distinct category separate from other disorders is the essence behind the

A) statistical approach.
B) psychodynamic model.
C) categorical approach.
D) dimensional model.

# 1.54
(1 pts.) Kathy was diagnosed with breast cancer 3 months ago and is now reporting feelings of severe depression. On what DSM-IV Axis would the information about her medical condition be recorded?

A) Axis I
B) Axis II
C) Axis III
D) Axis IV

# 1.55
(1 pts.) Which of the following information led Dr. Tobin to conclude that Peter was suffering from bipolar disorder?

A) the fact that he reported having intense bouts of anxiety
B) the fact that he had recently been married and soon after was divorced
C) the fact that after he lost his job he experienced a psychotic episode
D) the fact that at the time he was in a period of elation but had previously experienced a period of depression

# 1.56
(1 pts.) Mr. Kang, a recent immigrant from China, is extremely overwhelmed and distressed by the untimely death of his wife. His co-workers are concerned about his mental health because he believes he is in constant contact with her and can be seen talking to her on a regular basis. It is not likely that Mr. Kang would be diagnosed as having a mental disorder because his behavior

A) is an acceptable and culturally sanctioned response in his particular culture.
B) reflects a documented behavioral/psychological syndrome.
C) is not associated with his present distress and impairment.
D) cannot be explained using the medical model.

# 1.57
(1 pts.) Roger is in the stage of therapy where he and his therapist are working on altering his long-standing patterns of dependent behavior. What phase of therapy is Roger in?

A) immediate management
B) assessment of objectives
C) management of short-term goals
D) management of long-term goals

# 1.58
(1 pts.) Rob is receiving treatment for his psychological disorder at an outpatient treatment center. It is most likely that Rob is going to a

A) community mental health center.
B) halfway house.
C) psychiatric hospital.
D) psychoanalytic institute.

# 1.59
(1 pts.) Ralph has been sad and listless for 3 years. He can’t sleep and has lost his appetite. Using a diagnostic system, one clinician arrives at a diagnosis of depression. Using the exact same diagnostic system, another clinician arrives at a diagnosis of schizophrenia. What is the problem with this system?

A) It lacks construct validity.
B) It lacks universality.
C) It lacks reliability.
D) It lacks criterion validity.

# 1.60
(1 pts.) “Coughing, sniffling, sneezing, runny nose, achiness, scratchy throat, and inability to sleep.” This collection of symptoms represents a

A) constellation.
B) diagnosis.
C) prognosis.
D) syndrome.

# 1.61
(1 pts.) Dr. Johnson believes that the frequency and intensity of compulsive behavior exists on a continuum from mild to severe. Dr. Johnson prefers to use which approach when viewing this behavior?

A) categorical
B) dimensional
C) medical
D) nominal

# 1.62
(1 pts.) A psychologist suspects that Dan’s psychotic episode may be related to the recent death of his wife. On which DSM-IV Axis would this stressful event be recorded?

A) Axis I
B) Axis II
C) Axis III
D) Axis IV

# 1.63
(1 pts.) Robert has a serious drinking problem, but his therapist feels that the drinking is a result of Robert’s constant bouts with depression. Based on this information, what would Robert’s principle diagnosis be?

A) alcoholism
B) bipolar disorder
C) degenerative dementia
D) major depression

# 1.64
(1 pts.) Sangue dormido, or “sleeping blood” is a condition observed among individuals from the Cape Verde Islands (located off the west coast of Africa) and involves paralysis, convulsions, blindness, and tremors. This condition is referred to in DSM-IV as a(n)

A) adjustment disorder.
B) clinical syndrome.
C) general medical condition.
D) culture-bound syndrome.

# 1.65
(1 pts.) David is a junior at the local high school. The school’s administration believes his recent emotional outbursts during class may be due to problems in his home life. Who might be best suited to deal with this situation?

A) the principal
B) a guidance counselor
C) a psychiatrist
D) an EAP counselor

# 1.66
(1 pts.) James is a person with schizophrenia and has delusions that the CIA is after him. He believes that everyone on the street is trying to kill him and, as a matter of fact, he has been brought to a psychologist by the police after being arrested for assaulting an elderly woman on the street whom he claimed was trying to kill him. Assuming that testing reveals that he truly is psychotic and not faking, where would a psychologist recommend he be sent?

A) a CMHC
B) a day treatment program
C) a halfway house
D) a psychiatric hospital

# 1.67
(1 pts.) Shelly meets twice a week with a number of individuals who also have similar problems. They openly share their problems with others in a trusting, receptive environment which also facilitates improvement of their interpersonal skills. Shelly is participating in

A) milieu therapy.
B) group therapy.
C) dynamic therapy.
D) social therapy.

# 1.68
(1 pts.) In order to evaluate the effectiveness of a new psychotherapeutic technique, Dr. Schwartz is testing the therapy on clients that have sought treatment from him at his private practice. According to Martin Seligman, Dr. Schwartz is conducting an

A) epidemiological study.
B) empirical study.
C) efficacy study.
D) effectiveness study.

# 1.69
(1 pts.) Dr. Ramirez is a clinical psychologist who treats individuals with somatoform disorders, yet he is still troubled by his own somatic complaints. Which of the following roles and responsibilities would be in question in this case?

A) therapist competence
B) informed consent
C) confidentiality
D) licensure

# 1.70
(1 pts.) Dr. Blanchard is being pressured by the local police department for information on one of his clients who is suspected of murder. Dr. Blanchard must be careful to remember the principle of

A) mandated reporting.
B) privileged communication.
C) informed consent.
D) duty to warn.

# 1.71
(1 pts.) Wendy has been involuntarily committed to a psychiatric hospital. When she tries to use the ward pay phone, the staff members stand nearby and listen to her conversation. Occasionally they have actually interrupted her calls and have hung the phone up on her. Which of Wendy’s rights is being violated?

A) the right to stand trial
B) the right to treatment
C) the right to a humane environment
D) the right to refuse treatment

# 1.72
(1 pts.) Which of the following types of disorders would not meet the criteria for insanity according to the Insanity Defense Reform Act of 1984?

A) schizophrenia
B) major depression
C) bipolar disorder
D) antisocial personality disorder

# 1.73
(1 pts.) Dr. Strickland has neglected to notify Gary, one of his newest clients, about the potential risks of therapy and the limits of confidentiality during therapy sessions. Dr. Strickland has not provided him with the information needed for Gary to give

A) information on prognosis.
B) preferences for therapy.
C) restrictions on secrecy.
D) informed consent.

# 1.74
(1 pts.) You are a therapist and one of your clients has just told you that he is planning to murder his neighbor. Based on the principle of “duty to warn” what is the primary thing you should do?

A) Ignore your client’s threat.
B) Notify the potential victim’s family.
C) Hospitalize the client immediately.
D) Notify the potential victim of the person’s intent.

# 1.75
(1 pts.) Had Mark Chen been cognitively alert and responsive in the textbook case, he would have had the legal right to decline Dr. Tobin’s recommendation for ECT. His decision would have been supported by

A) the Americans with Disabilities Act.
B) parens patriae.
C) the Durham rule.
D) the right to refuse treatment.

# 1.76
(1 pts.) Sandy has been accused of committing a crime. Currently, as she is being tried, though, her schizophrenic symptoms have re-emerged and her behavior is extremely psychotic. It is likely that the attorneys and the judge involved in this case will

A) judge her not guilty by reason of insanity.
B) judge her guilty but insane.
C) judge her not competent to stand trial.
D) think she is faking and continue with the proceedings.

# 1.77
(1 pts.) Jeremy, a 13 year old, is being treated by Dr. Falkowski for oppositional defiant disorder. Jeremy’s parents have just called Dr. Falkowski and asked him what Jeremy has been saying about them in therapy. Dr. Falkowski needs to be careful not to violate

A) informed consent.
B) parens patriae.
C) mandated reporting.
D) confidentiality.

# 1.78
(1 pts.) Which of the following relationships between client and clinician would always be considered unethical?

A) The client is the clinician’s barber.
B) The client is the teacher of the clinician’s daughter.
C) The clinician is the coach of the client’s son’s hockey team.
D) The clinician is a business partner of the client.

# 1.79
(1 pts.) Although she is currently sound psychologically, Peggy’s lawyer is trying to make the case that at the time she murdered her husband, she was psychologically disturbed and unaware of the nature of her actions. Peggy’s lawyer is using the

A) insanity defense.
B) misguided intentions defense.
C) not competent to stand trial defense.
D) civil commitment clause.

# 1.80
(1 pts.) Because Phineas Gage’s crowbar injury affected his emotionality and impulsivity, we can assume he suffered injury to the

A) left temporal lobe
B) frontal lobe ,
C) cerebral cortex
D) limbic system

# 1.81
(1 pts.) Korsakoff’s syndrome sufferers often display

A) an inability to recall recent information
B) psychotic behavior
C) speech difficulties
D) motor difficulties

# 1.82
(1 pts.) The following three questions are addressed in which phase of Dr. Ben Yishay’s six-stage model: Can this individual learn? If so, at what level of sophistication? Can the person improvise and problem-solve in unexpected situations?

A) engagement
B) awareness
C) compensation
D) rehabilitation

# 1.83
(1 pts.) A patient presenting with a progressive memory impairment and a language impairment is most likely suffering from

A) acute depression
B) Alzheimer’s disease
C) Korsakoff’s syndrome
D) total amnesia

# 1.84
(1 pts.) Developmentally inappropriate inattention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity are characteristic of

A) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B) attention disorder
C) disruptive behavior disorder
D) hyperkinetic syndrome

# 1.85
(1 pts.) Amanda, who was extremely uncomfortable being apart from her mother and never wanted to go to school, a movie, or a friend’s house, showed symptoms of

A) separation anxiety disorder
B) conduct disorder
C) social development lag
D) developmental separation syndrome

# 1.86
(1 pts.) ______ is a childhood disorder that involves such behaviors as fighting, stealing, destroying property, truancy, and running away; it begins to appear in some boys when they are about 10 or 11 years old.

A) Antisocial personality disorder
B) Conduct disorder
C) ADHD
D) Impulsive behavior disorder

# 1.87
(1 pts.) The disorder characterized by a lack of responsiveness to other people and impaired communication skills is called

A) autism
B) conduct disorder
C) separation anxiety disorder
D) pervasive personality disorder

# 1.88
(1 pts.) Psychodynamic therapy, which was developed by Sigmund Freud, seeks to

A) discover faulty thinking patterns that cause maladaptive behavior and emotional
problems
B) focus on body-centered awareness
C) resolve issues or conflicts from childhood
D) determine which combination of individual and medical therapy will be effective

# 1.89
(1 pts.) One of the complicating factors of couples therapy is that the focus is on both the relationship and

A) the personal issues or problems of each participant
B) the length of time the couple has been having difficulties
C) whether or not one of the partners has been in therapy before
D) none of the above

# 1.90
(1 pts.) The primary role of the cognitive-behavioral therapist is to

A) help the client gain insight into the unresolved conflicts in his/her life
B) assist the person to develop new thought patterns
C) determine the different interactional patterns in the individual’s family
D) all of the above

# 1.91
(1 pts.) Dolores McCarthy, a social worker who leads therapy groups, reports that group members often relate to the group in the same way they relate to the world at large. She identifies this as a kind of

A) transference
B) gestalt
C) free association
D) conflict resolution

# 1.92
(1 pts.) Psychologists consider all of the following to be psychosocial protective factors EXCEPT

A) positive role models
B) specific coping skills
C) good parenting
D) genetic restructuring

# 1.93
(1 pts.) Dr. Comer points out risks of adolescence, such as alcoholism, drug abuse, and teen pregnancy

A) are more severe in lower socioeconomic groups
B) are virtually nonexistent in middle-income children
C) exist for all children, regardless of income level
D) are less severe today than in the 1950s