Among the advanced technologies used to study the brain’s structure and functions, which one provides detailed three-dimensional images of the brain’s structures and activities?

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Among the advanced technologies used to study the brain’s structure and functions, which one provides detailed three-dimensional images of the brain’s structures and activities?

A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation

B. Positron emission tomography

C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging

D. Electroencephalogram

2. In conducting an experiment, the experimenter divides a sample group of 60 children into two groups of 30 called group A and group B. To make sure the two groups are similar in terms of age, IQ, and so on, the experimenter will assign people to either group A or B using a/an ________ assignment procedure, such as a coin toss, where heads sends a subject to group A and tails sends a subject to group B.

A. experimental

B. independent

C. random

D. subjective

3. Within the cerebral cortex, the _______ area is found in the occipital lobe.

A. visual

B. association

C. somatosensory

D. main auditory

1. By means of introspection, Dr. Marsh attempts to determine the components of things like perception, thinking, and consciousness. By contrast, Dr. Smyth wants to understand what the mind does in producing different kinds of behavior. We can reasonably assume that Dr. Marsh’s research is mainly guided by the principles of

A. Gestalt psychology.

B. functionalism.

C. structuralism.

D. objectivism.

2. According to a Gestalt principle called _______, when we’re looking at a crowd of people, we tend to perceive people grouped close together as belonging to a common or related group.

A. simplicity

B. closure

C. expectancy

D. proximity

3. Dr. Lombard’s research is focused on the capacity of the human mind to store and retrieve information. Her colleague, Dr. Fry, is a clinician who strives to help his clients be “the best that they can be.” As a fly on the wall listening to the two psychologists’ friendly disputes during coffee breaks, which of these assertions would you most likely expect from Dr. Fry?

A. People can’t be held responsible for their life choices.

B. A person’s basic assumptions about themselves are inevitably false.

C. Mental confusion is best compared to a deficiency in short-term memory.

D. If biology is destiny the concept of free will can be only an illusion.

1. Agatha maintains that people are capable of freely making voluntary choices. Constance is mainly focused on how aggression is caused by genetic inheritance. It seems reasonable to assume that Constance is not much interested in environmental factors impacting behavior while Agatha rejects

A. determinism.

B. mental processes.

C. heredity.

D. introspection.

2. Regarding the association areas of the cerebral cortex, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. Association areas are to thinking as neuroplasticity is to language.

B. Changes in personality may indicate damage to the association areas.

C. Most association areas are located in the left cerebral hemisphere.

D. The association areas are largely responsible for neurogenesis.

3. In the ear, the basilar membrane and hair cells are found in the

A. oval window.

B. auditory nerve.

C. anvil and stirrup.

D. cochlea.

1. A clinical experiment is designed in such a way that neither the researchers dispensing a treatment nor the persons in the experimental or control groups know if they’re getting a sugar pill or a new drug. This sort of experimental design is employing a/an _______ procedure.

A. double-blind

B. reverse psychology

C. placebo

D. experimenter expectations

2. In his research, Dr. Caulfield wants to compare levels of test anxiety among high school students in grades 10 and 12. His hypothesis is that seniors will have higher levels of test anxiety than sophomores will. His _______ definition of test anxiety for each person in his sample will be a self-reported test-anxiety level, marked in a questionnaire as “high,” “moderate,” or “low.”

A. subjective

B. theoretical

C. functional

D. operational

3. I study a sample of 100 high school students and find that student IQ scores increase significantly as the level of reported parental income increases. I can conclude from this that

A. there’s a negative relationship between parental income and children’s IQ scores.

B. there’s a positive correlation between parental income and children’s IQ scores.

C. higher parental income causes an increase in children’s IQ scores.

D. students get smarter when their parents earn more money.

4. Jason argues that the pituitary gland’s main purpose is regulating the activity of other glands in the body. Barbara maintains that the pituitary gland also regulates growth. Who is correct?

A. Neither Jason nor Barbara is correct.

B. Barbara is correct.

C. Jason is correct.

D. Both Jason and Barbara are correct.

1. According to information provided in your text, circadian rhythms are associated with

A. the occurrence of anxiety attacks.

B. cycles of waking and sleeping.

C. attacks of sleep apnea.

D. the time of month that pregnant women are likely to go into labor.

2. During the _______ phase of problem solving, a means-ends analysis is a very common heuristic.

A. judgment

B. preparation

C. production

D. algorithm

3. In a lab devoted to sleep disorders Julio points to the brain wave monitor, turns to Laura and says, “Subject is going into non-REM Stage 2.” Laura looking at the monitor, says, “Got it; I’m recording the time.” What would Laura and Julio see on the monitor to assure them that the subject has entered Stage 2 sleep?

A. Brain waves are getting slower and more regular.

B. Sleep spindles appear.

C. Brain waves are irregular and episodic.

D. Sleep disturbance is indicated by sharp wave spikes.

 

What could be done to mitigate the risks and their impact on the system?

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You have been hired as the IT Risk Assessment lead consultant for Gigantic Corporation (your specialisation is based on the area you have chosen above). Your role is to be the interface between business stakeholders and technologists, translating potential technical difficulties into risk language to facilitate effective decision-making by stakeholders. You have been engaged to assess a project that falls into your specialised area. Once you complete a full assessment, you are required to provide the IT assessment report to the management in the department or section that is running the project for Gigantic.Cloud Security is the topic choosen by me.How to complete this task:You will write a report on the project IT risks based on the scenario.An Executive Summary at the beginning of the report which provides a clear statement of the technology project that is being assessed, and an overview of your recommendations to management as to the merits of the project based on your risk assessment (2 – 3 pages in length).A risk assessment based on threats, vulnerabilities and consequences derived from an IT control framework and any existing industry risk recommendations for the project. Identify and discuss the key threat agents. What could be done to mitigate the risks and their impact on the system? (5-7 pages in length).Provide a brief summary (literature review) of protection mechanisms you could employ for the information security. (2 – 4 pages in length).

explain the relationship between enzymes and energy in the context of metabolism;

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Last week we introduced cells as the basic unit of structure and function in living organisms. But in order to function, a cell needs energy.

Many living organisms—including humans—ingest food as a means to create energy. The organism’s digestive system breaks down the food’s biological macromolecules such as carbohydrates into sugars. When those sugar molecules are broken down, energy is produced. We measure this energy in units of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). ATP is used by cells as a source of energy.

Other organisms, such as plants, can produce energy without ingesting food. Plants produce energy from light through a process known as photosynthesis. As a human, your food comes from either plants or animals that eat plants. This means that the energy in your body depends, on some level, on plant photosynthesis. Without plant photosynthesis, we wouldn’t be able to get the energy we need from our food.

This week, we will look at ways cells create energy, the ways they acquire what they need to create energy, and how they transfer energy throughout an organism’s body.

The living cells of every organism constantly use energy. Cells import molecules, metabolize or otherwise modify them, then transport them around the cell, potentially even distributing products back out of the cell to the entire organism.

Metabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in a living organism. A key feature of metabolism is that chemical reactions often make the materials needed for other chemical reactions. Metabolism both builds bigger molecules from smaller ones and dismantles molecules to release atoms and energy.

Photosynthesis is one of the most important sets of chemical reactions in all of nature for more than just the energy it produces. In addition to being the pathway through which energy and carbon (in the form of glucose) enter the web of life, it also releases oxygen into the environment. Life as we know it would not exist without photosynthesis. This is quite an important role in nature!

You will participate in a class discussion related to topics in biology.

You will also complete a laboratory experiment on parts of the cell, including cell membranes.

And you will demonstrate your knowledge of course concepts with a quiz.

Next week we will study the life cycle of single cells and cell reproduction. Combined, these processes allow for existing cells to make new cells. The ability of living organisms to produce new cells is important for three of the major characteristics of life: growth, healing, and reproduction.

Week 3 Outcomes

By the end of this week, you should be able to

  • describe the scientific concepts relating to energy;
  • explain the relationship between enzymes and energy in the context of metabolism;
  • describe the role of metabolic pathways in living organisms;
  • explain the processes and outcomes of cellular respiration and fermentation;
  • explain the process of photosynthesis including the light dependent and light independent (Calvin cycle) reactions;
  • compare/contrast cellular organelles;
  • add specified amounts of stock solution from the lab kit to obtain specific solution concentrations;
  • use dialysis bags to test osmosis for various concentrations; and
  • apply concepts and/or argue a position related to a scientific topic.

What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? 

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QUESTION 1 

What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? 

A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs 

QUESTION 2 

The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism? 

A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics C. Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics 

QUESTION 3 

The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? 

A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy. B. The doses are based on achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy. C. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. D. None of the above. 

QUESTION 4 

Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression? 

A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate the psychotic symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy. D. There is no documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent. 

QUESTION 5 

The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient? 

A. Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS B. Prescribing the patient 12 mg/dail C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days D. Writing a prescription for a higher dose of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D2 receptor occupancy 

QUESTION 6 

The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will the PMHNP select? A. Lithium (Lithane) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Valproate (Depakote) D. Topiramate (Topamax) 

QUESTION 7 

The parents of a 7-year-old patient with ADHD are concerned about the effects of stimulants on their child. The parents prefer to start pharmacological treatment with a non-stimulant. Which medication will the PMHNP will most likely prescribe? 

A. Strattera B. Concerta C. Daytrana D. Adderall 

QUESTION 8

8 The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD? 

A. 8-year-old patient B. 24-year-old patient C. 55-year-old patient D. 82-year-old patient 

QUESTION 9 

A patient is prescribed D-methylphenidate, 10-mg extended-release capsules. What should the PMHNP include when discussing the side effects with the patient? 

A. The formulation can have delayed actions when taken with food. B. Sedation can be a common side effect of the drug. C. The medication can affect your blood pressure. D. This drug does not cause any dependency. 

QUESTION 10 

The PMHNP is teaching parents about their child’s new prescription for Ritalin. What will the PMHNP include in the teaching? 

A. The second dose should be taken at lunch. B. There are no risks for insomnia. C. There is only one daily dose, to be taken in the morning. D. There will be continued effects into the evening. 

QUESTION 11 

A young patient is prescribed Vyvanse. During the follow-up appointment, which comment made by the patient makes the PMHNP think that the dosing is being done incorrectly? 

A. “I take my pill at breakfast.” B. “I am unable to fall asleep at night.” C. “I feel okay all day long.” D. “I am not taking my pill at lunch.” 

QUESTION 12 

A 14-year-old patient is prescribed Strattera and asks when the medicine should be taken. What does the PMHNP understand regarding the drug’s dosing profile? 

A. The patient should take the medication at lunch. B. The patient will have one or two doses a day. C. The patient will take a pill every 17 hours. D. The dosing should be done in the morning and at night. 

QUESTION 13 

The PMHNP is meeting with the parents of an 8-year-old patient who is receiving an initial prescription for D-amphetamine. The PMHNP demonstrates appropriate prescribing practices when she prescribes the following dose: 

A. The child will be prescribed 2.5 mg. B. The child will be prescribed a 10-mg tablet. C. The child’s dose will increase by 2.5 mg every other week. D. The child will take 10–40 mg, daily. 

QUESTION 14 

A patient is being prescribed bupropion and is concerned about the side effects. What will the PMHNP tell the patient regarding bupropion? 

A. Weight gain is not unusual. B. Sedation may be common. C. It can cause cardiac arrhythmias. D. It may amplify fatigue. 

QUESTION 15 

Which patient will receive a lower dose of guanfacine? 

A. Patient who has congestive heart failure B. Patient who has cerebrovascular disease C. Patient who is pregnant D. Patient with kidney disease 

QUESTION 16 

An 18-year-old female with a history of frequent headaches and a mood disorder is prescribed topiramate (Topamax), 25 mg by mouth daily. The PMHNP understands that this medication is effective in treating which condition(s) in this patient? 

A. Migraines B. Bipolar disorder and depression C. Pregnancy-induced depression D. Upper back pain 

QUESTION 17 

The PMHNP is treating a patient for fibromyalgia and is considering prescribing milnacipran (Savella). When prescribing this medication, which action is the PMHNP likely to choose? 

A. Monitor liver function every 6 months for a year and then yearly thereafter. B. Monitor monthly weight. C. Split the daily dose into two doses after the first day. D. Monitor for occult blood in the stool. 

QUESTION 18 

The PMHNP is assessing a patient she has been treating with the diagnosis of chronic pain. During the assessment, the patient states that he has recently been having trouble getting to sleep and staying asleep. Based on this information, what action is the PMHNP most likely to take? 

A. Order hydroxyzine (Vistaril), 50 mg PRN or as needed B. Order zolpidem (Ambien), 5mg at bedtime C. Order melatonin, 5mg at bedtime D. Order quetiapine (Seroquel), 150 mg at bedtime 

QUESTION 19 

The PMHNP is assessing a female patient who has been taking lamotrigine (Lamictal) for migraine prophylaxis. After discovering that the patient has reached the maximum dose of this medication, the PMHNP decides to change the patient’s medication to zonisamide (Zonegran). In addition to evaluating this patient’s day-to-day activities, what should the PMHNP ensure that this patient understands? 

A. Monthly blood levels must be drawn. B. ECG monitoring must be done once every 3 months. C. White blood cell count must be monitored weekly. D. This medication has unwanted side effects such as sedation, lack of coordination, and drowsiness. 

QUESTION 20 

A patient recovering from shingles presents with tenderness and sensitivity to the upper back. He states it is bothersome to put a shirt on most days. This patient has end stage renal disease (ESRD) and is scheduled to have hemodialysis tomorrow but states that he does not know how he can lie in a recliner for 3 hours feeling this uncomfortable. What will be the PMHNP’s priority? 

A. Order herpes simplex virus (HSV) antibody testing B. Order a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine STAT C. Prescribe lidocaine 5% D. Prescribe hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2mg 

QUESTION 21 

The PMHNP prescribed a patient lamotrigine (Lamictal), 25 mg by mouth daily, for nerve pain 6 months ago. The patient suddenly presents to the office with the complaint that the medication is no longer working and complains of increased pain. What action will the PMHNP most likely take? 

A. Increase the dose of lamotrigine (Lamictal) to 25 mg twice daily. B. Ask if the patient has been taking the medication as prescribed. C. Order gabapentin (Neurontin), 100 mg three times a day, because lamotrigine (Lamictal) is no longer working for this patient. D. Order a complete blood count (CBC) to assess for an infection. 

QUESTION 22 

An elderly woman with a history of Alzheimer’s disease, coronary artery disease, and myocardial infarction had a fall at home 3 months ago that resulted in her receiving an open reduction internal fixation. While assessing this patient, the PMHNP is made aware that the patient continues to experience mild to moderate pain. What is the PMHNP most likely to do? 

A. Order an X-ray because it is possible that she dislocated her hip. B. Order ibuprofen (Motrin) because she may need long-term treatment and chronic pain is not uncommon. C. Order naproxen (Naprosyn) because she may have arthritis and chronic pain is not uncommon. D. Order Morphine and physical therapy. 

QUESTION 23 

The PMHNP is assessing a 49-year-old male with a history of depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), alcoholism with malnutrition, diabetes mellitus type 2, and hypertension. His physical assessment is unremarkable with the exception of peripheral edema bilaterally to his lower extremities and a chief complaint of pain with numbness and tingling to each leg 5/10. The PMHNP starts this patient on a low dose of doxepin (Sinequan). What is the next action that must be taken by the PMHNP? 

A. Orders liver function tests. B. Educate the patient on avoiding grapefruits when taking this medication. C. Encourage this patient to keep fluids to 1500 ml/day until the swelling subsides. D. Order a BUN/Creatinine test. 

QUESTION 24 

The PMHNP is evaluating a 30-year-old female patient who states that she notices pain and a drastic change in mood before the start of her menstrual cycle. The patient states that she has tried diet and lifestyle changes but nothing has worked. What will the PMHNP most likely do? A. Prescribe Estrin FE 24 birth control B. Prescribe ibuprofen (Motrin), 800 mg every 8 hours as needed for pain C. Prescribe desvenlafaxine (Pristiq), 50 mg daily D. Prescribe risperidone (Risperdal), 2 mg TID 

QUESTION 25 

A patient with chronic back pain has been prescribed a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). How does the PMHNP describe the action of SNRIs on the inhibition of pain to the patient? 

A. “The SNRI can increase noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn.” B. “The SNRI can decrease noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn.” C. “The SNRI can reduce brain atrophy by slowing the gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.” D. “The SNRI can increase neurotransmission to descending neurons.” 

QUESTION 26 

A patient with fibromyalgia and major depression needs to be treated for symptoms of pain. Which is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe for this patient? 

Venlafaxine (Effexor) 

Duloxetine (Cymbalta) 

Clozapine (Clozaril) 

Phenytoin (Dilantin) 

QUESTION 27 

The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient’s chronic pain. How does the PMHNP anticipate the drug to work? 

A. It will bind to the alpha-2-delta ligand subunit of voltage-sensitive calcium channels. B. It will induce synaptic changes, including sprouting. C. It will act on the presynaptic neuron to trigger sodium influx. D. It will inhibit activity of dorsal horn neurons to suppress body input from reaching the brain. 

QUESTION 28 

Mrs. Rosen is a 49-year-old patient who is experiencing fibro-fog. What does the PMHNP prescribe for Mrs. Rosen to improve this condition? A. Venlafaxine (Effexor) B. Armodafinil (Nuvigil) C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. All of the above 

QUESTION 29 

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with fibromyalgia. Which second-line treatment does the PMHNP select that may be effective for managing this patient’s pain?

A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) B. Viloxazine (Vivalan) C. Imipramine (Tofranil) D. Bupropion (Wellbutrin 

QUESTION 30 

The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient’s chronic pain by having the agent bind the open channel conformation of VSCCs to block those channels with a “use-dependent” form of inhibition. Which agent will the PMHNP most likely select? 

A. Pregabalin (Lyrica) B. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) C. Modafinil (Provigil) D. Atomoxetine (Strattera) 

QUESTION 31 

A patient with irritable bowel syndrome reports chronic stomach pain. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient an agent that will cause irrelevant nociceptive inputs from the pain to be ignored and no longer perceived as painful. Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe? 

A. Pregabalin (Lyrica) B. Gabapentin (Neurontin) C. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) D. B and C 

QUESTION 32 

The PMHNP wants to use a symptom-based approach to treating a patient with fibromyalgia. How does the PMHNP go about treating this patient? 

A. Prescribing the patient an agent that ignores the painful symptoms by initiating a reaction known as “fibro-fog” B. Targeting the patient’s symptoms with anticonvulsants that inhibit gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex C. Matching the patient’s symptoms with the malfunctioning brain circuits and neurotransmitters that might mediate those symptoms D. None of the above 

QUESTION 33 

The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in treating this particular patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP? 

A. “SSRIs only increase norepinephrine levels.” B. “SSRIs only increase serotonin levels.” C. “SSRIs increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels.” D. “SSRIs do not increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels.” 

QUESTION 34 

A patient with gambling disorder and no other psychiatric comorbidities is being treated with pharmacological agents. Which drug is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe? 

A. Antipsychotics B. Lithium C. SSRI D. Naltrexone 

QUESTION 35 

Kevin is an adolescent who has been diagnosed with kleptomania. His parents are interested in seeking pharmacological treatment. What does the PMHNP tell the parents regarding his treatment options? 

A. “Naltrexone may be an appropriate option to discuss.” B. “There are many medicine options that treat kleptomania.” C. “Kevin may need to be prescribed antipsychotics to treat this illness.” D. “Lithium has proven effective for treating kleptomania.” 

QUESTION 36 

Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for impulsive aggression? 

A. Anticonvulsant mood stabilizers can eradicate limbic irritability. B. Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical dopaminergic stimulation. C. Stimulants can be used to decrease frontal inhibition. D. Opioid antagonists can be used to reduce drive. 

QUESTION 37 

A patient with hypersexual disorder is being assessed for possible pharmacologic treatment. Why does the PMHNP prescribe an antiandrogen for this patient? 

A. It will prevent feelings of euphoria. B. It will amplify impulse control. C. It will block testosterone. D. It will redirect the patient to think about other things. 

QUESTION 38 

Mrs. Kenner is concerned that her teenage daughter spends too much time on the Internet. She inquires about possible treatments for her daughter’s addiction. Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of pharmacologic approaches for compulsive disorders? 

A. “Compulsive Internet use can be treated similarly to how we treat people with substance use disorders.” B. “Internet addiction is treated with drugs that help block the tension/arousal state your daughter experiences.” C. “When it comes to Internet addiction, we prefer to treat patients with pharmaceuticals rather than psychosocial methods.” D. “There are no evidence-based treatments for Internet addiction, but there are behavioral therapies your daughter can try.” 

QUESTION 39 

Mr. Peterson is meeting with the PMHNP to discuss healthier dietary habits. With a BMI of 33, Mr. Peterson is obese and needs to modify his food intake. “Sometimes I think I’m addicted to food the way some people are addicted to drugs,” he says. Which statement best describes the neurobiological parallels between food and drug addiction? 

A. There is decreased activation of the prefrontal cortex. B. There is increased sensation of the reactive reward system. C. There is reduced activation of regions that process palatability. D. There are amplified reward circuits that activate upon consumption. 

QUESTION 40 

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who reports excessive arousal at nighttime. What could the PMHNP use for a time-limited duration to shift the patient’s brain from a hyperactive state to a sleep state? 

A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist B. Benzodiazepines C. Stimulants D. Caffeine 

QUESTION 41 

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who experiences too much overstimulation and anxiety during daytime hours. The patient agrees to a pharmacological treatment but states, “I don’t want to feel sedated or drowsy from the medicine.” Which decision made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper knowledge of this patient’s symptoms and appropriate treatment options? 

A. Avoiding prescribing the patient a drug that blocks H1 receptors B. Prescribing the patient a drug that acts on H2 receptors C. Stopping the patient from taking medicine that unblocks H1 receptors D.None of the above 

QUESTION 42 

The PMHNP is performing a quality assurance peer review of the chart of another PMHNP. Upon review, the PMHNP reviews the chart of an older adult patient in long-term care facility who has chronic insomnia. The chart indicates that the patient has been receiving hypnotics on a nightly basis. What does the PMHNP find problematic about this documentation? 

A. Older adult patients are contraindicated to take hypnotics. B. Hypnotics have prolonged half-lives that can cause drug accumulation in the elderly. C. Hypnotics have short half-lives that render themselves ineffective for older adults. D. Hypnotics are not effective for “symptomatically masking” chronic insomnia in the elderly. 

QUESTION 43 

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with chronic insomnia who is worried about pharmacological treatment because the patient does not want to experience dependence. Which pharmacological treatment approach will the PMHNP likely select for this patient for a limited duration, while searching and correcting the underlying pathology associated with the insomnia? 

A. Serotonergic hypnotics B. Antihistamines C. Benzodiazepine hypnotics D. Non-benzodiazepine hypnotics 

QUESTION 44 

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with chronic insomnia who would benefit from taking hypnotics. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient a drug with an ultra-short half-life (1–3 hours). Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe? 

A. Flurazepam (Dalmane) B. Estazolam (ProSom) C. Triazolam (Halcion) D. Zolpidem CR (Ambien) 

QUESTION 45 

The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient’s chronic insomnia and wishes to start with an initial prescription that has a half-life of approximately 1–2 hours. What is the most appropriate prescription for the PMHNP to make? 

A. Triazolam (Halcion) B. Quazepam (Doral) C. Temazepam (Restoril) D. Flurazepam (Dalmane) 

QUESTION 46 

A patient with chronic insomnia asks the PMHNP if they can first try an over-the-counter (OTC) medication before one that needs to be prescribed to help the patient sleep. Which is the best response by the PMHNP? 

A. “There are no over-the-counter medications that will help you sleep.” B. “You can choose from one of the five benzo hypnotics that are approved in the United States.” C. “You will need to ask the pharmacist for a non-benzodiazepine medicine.” D. “You can get melatonin over the counter, which will help with sleep onset.” 

QUESTION 47 

A patient with chronic insomnia and depression is taking trazodone (Oleptro) but complains of feeling drowsy during the day. What can the PMHNP do to reduce the drug’s daytime sedating effects? 

A. Prescribe the patient an antihistamine to reverse the sedating effects B. Increasing the patient’s dose and administer it first thing in the morning C. Give the medicine at night and lower the dose D. None of the above 

QUESTION 48 

The PMHNP is teaching a patient with a sleep disorder about taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). The patient is concerned about the side effects of the drug. What can the PMHNP teach the patient about this treatment approach? 

A. “It can cause diarrhea.” B. “It can cause blurred vision.” C. “It can cause increased salivation.” D. “It can cause heightened cognitive effects.” 

QUESTION 49 

Parents of a 12-year-old boy want to consider attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) medication for their son. Which medication would the PMHNP start? 

Methylphenidate Amphetamine salts Atomoxetine All of the above could potentially treat their son’s symptoms. 

QUESTION 50

An adult patient presents with a history of alcohol addiction and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Given these comorbidities, the PMHNP determines which of the following medications may be the best treatment option? 

A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) B. Amphetamine C. Atomoxetine (Strattera) D. Fluoxetine (Prozac) 

QUESTION 51 

An 8-year-old patient presents with severe hyperactivity, described as “ants in his pants.” Based on self-report from the patient, his parents, and his teacher; attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is suspected. What medication is the PMNHP most likely to prescribe? 

A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) B. Clonidine (Catapres) C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) D. Desipramine (Norpramin) 

QUESTION 52 

A 9-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of both attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and oppositional defiant disorder. In evaluating her symptoms, the PMHNP determines that which of the following medications may be beneficial in augmenting stimulant medication? 

A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) B. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) C. Guanfacine ER (Intuniv) D. Atomoxetine (Strattera) 

QUESTION 53 

A PMHNP supervisor is discussing with a nursing student how stimulants and noradrenergic agents assist with ADHD symptoms. What is the appropriate response? 

A. They both increase signal strength output dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE). B. Dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE) are increased in the prefrontal cortex. C. Noradrenergic agents correct reductions in dopamine (DA) in the reward pathway leading to increased ability to maintain attention to repetitive or boring tasks and resist distractions. D. All of the above. 

QUESTION 54 

A 43-year-old male patient is seeking clarification about treating attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in adults and how it differs from treating children, since his son is on medication to treat ADHD. The PMHNP conveys a major difference is which of the following? 

A. Stimulant prescription is more common in adults. B. Comorbid conditions are more common in children, impacting the use of stimulants in children. C. Atomoxetine (Strattera) use is not advised in children. D. Comorbidities are more common in adults, impacting the prescription of additional agents. 

QUESTION 55 

A 26-year-old female patient with nicotine dependence and a history of anxiety presents with symptoms of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Based on the assessment, what does the PMHNP consider? 

A. ADHD is often not the focus of treatment in adults with comorbid conditions. B. ADHD should always be treated first when comorbid conditions exist. C. Nicotine has no reported impact on ADHD symptoms. D. Symptoms are often easy to treat with stimulants, given the lack of comorbidity with other conditions. 

QUESTION 56 

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the use of stimulants to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? 

A. In adults with both ADHD and anxiety, treating the anxiety with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), or benzodiazepines and the ADHD with stimulants is most effective in treating both conditions. B. Signal strength output is increased by dialing up the release of dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE). C. In conditions where excessive DA activation is present, such as psychosis or mania, comorbid ADHD should never be treated with stimulants. D. High dose and pulsatile delivery of stimulants that are short acting are preferred to treat ADHD. 

QUESTION 57 

The PMHNP is providing a workshop for pediatric nurses, and a question is posed about noradrenergic agents to treat ADHD. Which of the following noradrenergic agents have norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (NRI) properties that can treat ADHD? 

A. Desipramine (Norpramin) B. Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) C. Atomoxetine (Strattera) D. Both “A” & “C” E. “C” only 

QUESTION 58 

A 71-year-old male patient comes to an appointment with his 65-year-old wife. They are both having concerns related to her memory and ability to recognize faces. The PMNHP is considering prescribing memantine (Namenda) based on the following symptoms: 

A. Amnesia, aphasia, apnea B. Aphasia, apraxia, diplopia C. Amnesia, apraxia, agnosia D. Aphasia, agnosia, arthralgia 

QUESTION 59 

The PMHNP evaluates a patient presenting with symptoms of dementia. Before the PMHNP considers treatment options, the patient must be assessed for other possible causes of dementia. Which of the following answers addresses both possible other causes of dementia and a rational treatment option for Dementia? 

A. Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, multiple sclerosis Possible treatment option: memantine B. Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, hyperparathyroidism Possible treatment option: donepezil C. Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, niacin deficiency Possible treatment option: risperidone D. Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, lupus erythematosus Possible treatment option: donepezil 

QUESTION 60 

A group of nursing students seeks further clarification from the PMHNP on how cholinesterase inhibitors are beneficial for Alzheimer’s disease patients. What is the appropriate response? 

A. Acetylcholine (ACh) destruction is inhibited by blocking the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. B. Effectiveness of these agents occurs in all stages of Alzheimer’s disease. C. By increasing acetylcholine, the decline in some patients may be less rapid. D. Both “A” & “C.” 

QUESTION 61 

The PMHNP is assessing a patient who presents with elevated levels of brain amyloid as noted by positron emission tomography (PET). What other factors will the PMHNP consider before prescribing medication for this patient, and what medication would the PMHNP want to avoid given these other factors? 

A. ApoE4 genotype and avoid antihistamines if possible B. Type 2 diabetes and avoid olanzapine C. Anxiety and avoid methylphenidate D. Both “A” & “B” 

QUESTION 62 

A 72-year-old male patient is in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. The PMHNP determines that improving memory is a key consideration in selecting a medication. Which of the following would be an appropriate choice? 

A. Rivastigmine (Exelon) B. Donepezil (Aricept) C. Galantamine (Razadyne) D. All of the above 

QUESTION 63 

A 63-year-old patient presents with the following symptoms. The PMHNP determines which set of symptoms warrant prescribing a medication? Select the answer that is matched with an appropriate treatment. 

A. Reduced ability to remember names is most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option is memantine. B. Impairment in the ability to learn and retain new information is most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option would be donepezil. C. Reduced ability to find the correct word is most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option would be memantine. D. Reduced ability to remember where objects are most problematic, and an appropriate treatment option would be donepezil. 

QUESTION 64 

A 75-year-old male patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease presents with agitation and aggressive behavior. The PMHNP determines which of the following to be the best treatment option? 

A. Immunotherapy B. Donepezil (Aricept) C. Haloperidol (Haldol) D. Citalopram (Celexa) or Escitalopram (Lexapro) 

QUESTION 65 

The PMHNP has been asked to provide an in-service training to include attention to the use of antipsychotics to treat Alzheimer’s. What does the PMHNP convey to staff? 

A. The use of antipsychotics may cause increased cardiovascular events and mortality. B. A good option in treating agitation and psychosis in Alzheimer’s patients is haloperidol (Haldol). C. Antipsychotics are often used as “chemical straightjackets” to over-tranquilize patients. D. Both “A” & “C.” 

QUESTION 66 

An 80-year-old female patient diagnosed with Stage II Alzheimer’s has a history of irritable bowel syndrome. Which cholinergic drug may be the best choice for treatment given the patient’s gastrointestinal problems? 

A. Donepezil (Aricept) B. Rivastigmine (Exelon) C. Memantine (Namenda) D. All of the above 

QUESTION 67 

The PMHNP understands that bupropion (Wellbutrin) is an effective way to assist patients with smoking cessation. Why is this medication effective for these patients? 

A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) releases the dopamine that the patient would normally receive through smoking. B. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) assists patients with their cravings by changing the way that tobacco tastes. C. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) blocks dopamine reuptake, enabling more availability of dopamine. D. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) works on the mesolimbic neurons to increase the availability of dopamine. 

QUESTION 68 

Naltrexone (Revia), an opioid antagonist, is a medication that is used for which of the following conditions? 

A. Alcoholism B. Chronic pain C. Abuse of inhalants D. Mild to moderate heroin withdrawal 

QUESTION 69 

A patient addicted to heroin is receiving treatment for detoxification. He begins to experience tachycardia, tremors, and diaphoresis. What medication will the PMHNP prescribe for this patient? 

A. Phenobarbital (Luminal) B. Methadone (Dolophine) C. Naloxone (Narcan) D. Clonidine (Catapres) 

QUESTION 70 

A patient diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder has been taking a high-dose SSRI and is participating in therapy twice a week. He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities due to consistent interferences of his obsessions and compulsions. The PMHNP knows that the next step would be which of the following? 

A. Decrease his SSRI and add buspirone (Buspar). B. Decrease his SSRI and add an MAOI. C. Decrease his SSRI steadily until it can be discontinued then try an antipsychotic to manage his symptoms. D. Keep his SSRI dosage the same and add a low-dose TCA. 

QUESTION 71 

The PMHNP is assessing a patient who will be receiving phentermine (Adipex-P)/topiramate (Topamax) (Qsymia). Which of the following conditions/diseases will require further evaluation before this medication can be prescribed? 

A. Kidney disease stage II B. Obesity C. Cardiovascular disease D. Diabetes type II 

QUESTION 72 

The PMHNP prescribes an obese patient phentermine (Adipex-p)/topiramate ER (Topamax) (Qsymia), Why is topiramate (Topamax) often prescribed with phentermine (Adipex-P)? 

A. Phentermine (Adipex-P) dose can be increased safely when taken with an anticonvulsant. B. Phentermine (Adipex-P) works by suppressing appetite while topiramate (Topamax) acts by inhibiting appetite. C. Topiramate (Topamax) potentiates appetite suppression achieved by phentermine (Adipex-P). D. Topiramate (Topamax) helps prevent the unwanted side effects of phentermine (Adipex-P). 

QUESTION 73 

The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has expressed suicidal intent and is now stating that he is hearing voices and sees people chasing him. The PMHNP identifies these symptoms to be associated with which of the following? 

A. Barbiturate intoxication B. Marijuana intoxication C. “Bath salt” intoxication D. Cocaine intoxication 

QUESTION 74 

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who openly admitted to drinking a quart of vodka daily. Prior to prescribing this patient disulfiram (Antabuse), it is important for the PMHNP to: 

A. Evaluate the patient’s willingness to abstain from alcohol B. Counsel the patient on dietary restrictions C. Obtain liver function tests D. Assess for addiction to opioids 

QUESTION 75 An opioid-naive patient is taking MS Contin (morphine sulfate) to treat his pain that is secondary to cancer. Under what circumstances would the PMHNP order naloxone (Narcan) IM/SQ? 

A. The patient’s speech is slurred, and he is in and out of sleep. B. The patient’s appetite has decreased from eating 100% of his meal to 50% of his meal. C. The patient complains of not having a bowel movement for 4 days. D. The patient’s vital signs are 98.4F temp, 88 pulse, 104/62 blood pressure, and 8 respirations. 

QUESTION 76 

When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? 

Yes No

 

                         NURS 6630 Midterm Exam (2018): Walden University

QUESTION 1

1.      A noncompliant patient states, “Why do you want me to put this poison in my body?” Identify the best response made by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP).

A.

“You have to take your medication to become stable.”

B.

“Most medications will increase the number of neurotransmitters that you already have in the brain.”

C.

“Most medications used in treatment are either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitters that your body already has.”

D.

“Why do you believe that your medication is poison?”

QUESTION 2

1.      Which statement about neurotransmitters and medications is true?

A.

Natural neurotransmitters such as endorphins have been discovered after the development of medications.

B.

Some medications were developed after the discovery and known action of the neurotransmitters in the brain.

C.

Neurotransmitters receive messages from most medications.

D.

The neurotransmitter serotonin is directly linked to depression. Following this discovery, the antidepressant Prozac was developed.

1 points  

QUESTION 3

1.      When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be:

A.

“In an extreme case such as yours, more than one medication is often needed.”

B.

“Due to the ineffectiveness of your current medication, we need to try something else that can possibly potentiate its effects.

C.

“Medications are often specific to the neurotransmitter(s) they are affecting and, due to more than one neurotransmitter involvement, it is often necessary to use more than one medication to improve symptoms.”

D.

“I understand your concern. We can discontinue your current medication and switch to a different one that may better manage your symptoms.”

1 points  

QUESTION 4 ?

1.      During gene expression, what must occur prior to a gene being expressed?

A.

Transcription factor must bind to the regulatory region within the cell’s nucleus.

B.

RNA must be converted to mRNA.

C.

The coding region must separate from the regulatory region. This is wrong

D.

RNA polymerase must inhibit the process of changing RNA to mRNA.

1 points  

QUESTION 5

1.      While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do genes impact this process?

A.

Genes impact neuron functioning directly.

B.

Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior.

C.

Neurons are able to impact protein synthesis.

D.

Genes impact the DNA of a cell, leading to changes in behavior.

1 points  

QUESTION 6

1.      Though medications have the ability to target neurotransmitters in the synapse, it is not always necessary. The PMHNP understands that this is because:

A.

Neurotransmission that occurs via the axon allows for transport of a neurotransmitter.

B.

Active transport is a different type of energy that allows the transport of certain neurotransmitters.

C.

Neurotransmitters can spread by diffusion.

D.

The postsynaptic neuron can release the neurotransmitter.

1 points  

QUESTION 7

1.      Why is the cytochrome P450 enzyme system of significance to the PMHNP?

A.

The kidneys play a role with excretion of the medication, and if a patient has kidney damage, the dose must be increased to be effective.

B.

The bioavailability of the medication after it passes through the stomach and liver can be altered. Correct answer

C.

The medication’s chemical composition changes when it comes in contact with the acid in the stomach.

D.

The CYP enzyme system is a steady and predictable process that prescribers must understand to treat conditions effectively.

1 points  

QUESTION 8

1.      It is important for the PMHNP to recognize differences in pharmacokinetics to safely prescribe and monitor medications. Which of the following statements does the competent PMHNP identify as true?

A.

About 1 out of 5 Asians requires lower-than-normal doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

B.

The term polymorphic refers to the body’s ability to break a medication down several ways, and this patient may require higher doses of certain antidepressants and antipsychotics.

C.

About 1 out of 30 Caucasians requires lower doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

D.

Most enzyme pathways do not have interactions between the newer medications.

1 points  

QUESTION 9

1.      As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about medications that are used in practice?

A.

Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic traits.

B.

The majority of medications used in practice are full agonists and are used to stimulate the body’s natural neurotransmitters.

C.

Most medications act as partial agonists because they allow the body to use only what is needed.

D.

Medications used in practice may act as inverse agonists if the dosage is too high.

1 points  

QUESTION 10

1.      The PMHNP is considering prescribing a 49-year-old male clozapine (Clozaril) to treat his schizophrenia and suicidal ideations. The PMHNP is aware that which factor may impact the dose needed to effectively treat his condition:

A.

The patient smokes cigarettes.

B.

The patient has hypertension.

C.

The patient has chronic kidney disease, stage 2.

D.

The patient drinks a cup of coffee a day.

1 points  

QUESTION 11

1.      A patient is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is currently taking carbamazepine (Tegretol), aripiprazole (Abilify), and melatonin. The PMHNP has just written an order to discontinue the carbamazepine (Tegretol) for drug-induced thrombocytopenia. The PMHNP is aware that his next best action is to:

A.

Alert staff to possible seizures

B.

Write an order for a different moodstabilizer

C.

Decrease the amount prescribed for aripiprazole (Abilify)

D.

Explain to the patient that it will be more difficult to control his temper