Which of the following represents a class I lever system

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Chapter 10 Muscular System: Gross Anatomy________________________________________ 1. The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the muscle that connects to the sternum is the a. origin. b. belly. c. body. d. insertion. e. fixator. 2. Which of the following represents a class I lever system? a. crossing your legs b. hyperextension of the head c. standing on your tiptoes d. flexion of the elbow to elevate the hand e. lifting weight with your arm 3. In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used. a. Pterygoid b. Infrahyoid c. Auricularis d. Suprahyoid e. Hyoglossus 4. If abdominal muscles are contracted while the vertebral column is fixed this will aid in a. vomiting. b. childbirth. c. urination. d. defecation. e. All of these choices are correct. 5. Which muscle will depress the scapula or elevate the ribs? a. levator scapulae b. serratus anterior c. pectoralis minor d. subclavius e. rhomboideus major 6. Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and has its insertion on the ulna? a. Deltoid b. biceps brachii c. triceps brachii d. Brachialis e. Coracobrachialis 7. The gluteus maximus a. does most of the work in “sit-ups.” b. accounts for a sprinter’s stance. c. allows one to sit cross-legged. d. is used in the knee-jerk reflex. e. is a common site for injections. 8. Label muscle “A” on the diagram. a. orbicularis oculi b. temporalis c. Trapezius d. Sternocleidomastoid e. masseter 9. Label muscle “A” on the diagram. a. linea alba b. serratus anterior c. rectus abdominis d. external oblique e. internal oblique 10. What does “A” represent? a. Coracobrachialis b. Deltoid c. pectoralis major d. biceps brachii e. serratus anterior

Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle

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Week Four Quiz Chapter 9 Muscular System: Histology and Physiology________________________________________ 1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle? a. body movement b. maintenance of posture c. respiration d. constriction of organs e. production of heat 2. Which of the following is true? a. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction. b. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs. c. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei. d. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical. e. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart. 3. Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch? a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. cardiac muscle d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle e. both cardiac and smooth muscle 4. Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the a. number of muscle fibers. b. size of muscle fibers. c. number of striations. d. number of nuclei within the muscle fibers. e. number of muscle cells. 5. Actin myofilaments a. resemble bundles of minute golf clubs. b. contain both myosin and tropomyosin. c. are held in place by the M line. d. contain strands of fibrous actin. e. are the thickest proteins in muscle. 6. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal, a. calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels. b. acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal. c. a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal. d. ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened. e. nothing else happens. 7. In excitation-contraction coupling, a. calcium ions must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin. b. myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin. c. cross-bridges form between myosin heads and calcium ions. d. movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide. e. ATP binds to actin myofilaments. 8. Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation? a. increased motor unit recruitment b. increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils c. exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments d. the breakdown of elastic elements in the cell e. decreased stimulus frequency 9. An isotonic contraction is described as a. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs. b. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction. c. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction. d. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. e. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing. 10. Which type of respiration occurs in the mitochondria? a. anaerobic respiration b. aerobic respiration c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration

Which of the following is NOT an effector controlled by the autonomic nervous system

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30. The corpus callosum a. consists of a broad band of gray matter b. is found at the base of the transverse fissure c. is a band of commissural fibers that connects the right cerebral hemisphere to the left cerebral hemisphere d. connects the frontal lobe to the occipital lobe e. connects the frontal lobe to the parietal lobe 31. Which nerve has branches that extend to the thoracic and abdominal viscera? a. facial nerve b. vagus nerve c. trigeminal nerve d. glossopharyngeal ner 32. Which of the following is a somatic sense? a. smell b. taste c. touch d. sound e. sight 33. Label area “A” on the cerebral cortex. a. visual cortex b. primary motor cortex c. primary somatic sensory cortex d. motor speech area (Broca’s area) e. sensory speech area (Wernicke’s area) 33. The figure is a sagittal section of the eye. What does “A” represent? a. iris b. pupil c. lens d. conjunctiva e. cornea 34. Which of the following is NOT an effector controlled by the autonomic nervous system? a. cardiac muscle b. glands c. skeletal muscle d. smooth muscle in blood vessels e. smooth muscle in the digestive system 35. Identify structure “C” on the bottom diagram. a. autonomic ganglion b. somatic motor neuron c. effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract) d. postganglionic neuron e. preganglionic neuron 36. The endocrine system a. releases neurotransmitters into ducts b. secretes chemicals that reach their targets through the bloodstream c. communicates via frequency-modulated signals d. contains organs called exocrine glands e. is isolated from the nervous system Consider the following events in the intracellular receptor model: 1: Hormone receptor complex binds to DNA. 2: Messenger RNA directs synthesis of specific proteins. 3: Hormone binds to receptors either in cytoplasm or nucleus. 4: Messenger RNA synthesis is activated. 5: Synthesized proteins produce the response of the cell. 37. Which of these events occurs in the nucleus? a. 1, 3, 5 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 3, 4, 5 e. All events occur in the nucleus 38. The hypothalamus a. rests in the sella turcica b. is also called the neurohypophysis c. is located inferior to the pituitary gland d. regulates the secretory activity of the pituitary gland e. is located superior to the thalamus 39. The major secretory products of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex are a. glucocorticoids b. mineralocorticoids c. androgens. d. catecholamines e. cortisol and ADH

Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue?

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The study of tissues is a. cytology b. histology c. molecular biology d. microbiology e. surface anatomy 2. In a negative feedback mechanism, the response of the effect or a. reverses the original stimulus b. enhances the original stimulus c. has no effect on the original stimulus d. is usually damaging to the body e. creates a cycle that leads away from homeostasis 3. Covalent bonds form when a. atomic nuclei fuse b. molecules become ionized c. neutrons are transferred from one atom to another d. protons are lost from atoms e. electrons are shared between two atoms 4. Reactions that use water to split molecules apart are called _______ reactions. a. dehydration b. synthesis c. hydrolysis d. reversible e. oxidation 5. Proteins a. are the body’s source of immediate energy b. are the building blocks of nucleotides c. provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues d. contain the genetic information of the cell e. insulate and cushion the body 6. The plasma membrane a. separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell b. is a rigid protein membrane c. is not permeable d. has a single layer of phospholipids e. regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell 7. Channel proteins a. are binding sites for other molecules b. utilize the G protein complex to function c. are found only on endoplasmic reticulum d. allow cells to recognize one another e. provide a “door” through which extracellular molecules can enter the cell 8. Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue? a. conduction of action potentials b. secretion and absorption of molecules c. support of other tissue types d. contraction e. shock absorption 9. Adipose tissue a. functions as an insulator and a site of energy storage b. exists in three forms: yellow, red, and brown c. contains large amounts of extracellular matrix d. is composed of relatively small cells e. does not contain lipids 10. Skin color is the result of the a. quantity of melanin in the skin b. number of keratinocytes in the skin c. amount of fat in the hypodermis d. thickness of the stratum basale e. number of melanocytes in the skin 11. What does structure “B” represent on the diagram? a. hair follicle b. arrector pili c. dermis d. hypodermis e. sebaceous gland 12. When blood calcium levels are low a. osteoclast activity increases b. calcitonin secretion increases c. calcium absorption is reduced d. bones produce more bone tissue e. osteoblast activity increases 13. What does structure “A” represent on the bone diagram? a. cancellous bone b. Diaphysis c. epiphyseal lines d. articular cartilage e. epiphysis 14. What does structure “A” represent? a. frontal bone b. occipital bone c. parietal bone d. sphenoid bone e. temporal bone 15. The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does “A” represent? a. radius b. carpals c. phalanges d. metacarpals e. ulna 16. The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does “C” represent? a. femur b. fibula c. tarsals d. tibia e. patella 17. The joint between the head of the radius and the proximal end of the ulna is a _____ joint. a. plane b. saddle c. hinge d. pivot e. ball and socket 18. What does structure “A” represent on the diagram? a. tendon b. articular cartilage c. bursa d. fibrous capsule e. synovial membrane 19. Which of the following is composed of myosin molecules? a. thick myofilaments b. I Bands c. Z disks d. Sarcolemma e. tropomyosin 20. What does “B” represent on the diagram? a. threshold b. depolarization c. depolarization phase of action potential d. repolarization phase of action potential 21. The flexion of the elbow represents a a. class I lever system b. class II lever system c. class III lever system d. class IV lever system e. non-lever system 22. Label muscle “A” on the diagram. a. orbicularis oculi b. temporalis c. trapezius d. sternocleidomastoid e. masseter 23. What does “A” represent? a. coracobrachialis b. deltoid c. pectoralis major d. biceps brachii e. serratus anterior 24. The central nervous system includes the a. ganglia b. spinal cord c. spinal nerves d. cranial nerves e. sensory receptors 25. Identify structure “A” on the neuron. a. Schwann cell b. Node of Ranvier c. neuron cell body (soma) d. dendrites e. axon 26. The figure is a process figure of the chemical synapse. What does “C” represent? a. postsynaptic membrane b. synaptic cleft c. synaptic vesicle d. voltage-gated calcium channel e. presynaptic terminal 27. Which of the following combinations indicates the correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs? a. 7 cervical – 12 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal b. 7 cervical – 12 thoracic – 5 lumbar – 6 sacral – 1 coccygeal c. 8 cervical – 12 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 4 sacral – 1 coccygeal d. 8 cervical – 12 thoracic – 5 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal e. 7 cervical – 13 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal 28. Label component “A” on the reflex arc. a. sensory receptor b. effector organ c. sensory neuron d. motor neuron e. interneuron 29. A small lesion in the brainstem which resulted in a rapid heart rate, intense vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure would probably be located in the a. medulla oblongata. b. Pons c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus e. cerebrum