Explain Respiratory Failure and the two types of respiratory failure: hypoxemic and hypercapnic respiratory failure

Learning Objectives Covered

1. Explain Respiratory Failure and the two types of respiratory failure: hypoxemic and hypercapnic respiratory failure

2. List and describe the indications and objectives for ventilator support

3. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of volume and pressure ventilation>

Background

Mechanical Ventilation is indicated to assist the patient who cannot maintain adequate oxygenation, alveolar ventilation or lacks the ability to protect his or her own airway.The inability of a patient to maintain either the normal delivery of oxygen to the tissues or the normal removal of carbon dioxide from the tissues is referred to as acute respiratory failure. Though the three common indications for mechanical ventilation includes inability to maintain adequate oxygenation, inability to maintain adequate alveolar ventilation and/or inability to protect one’s own airway. There are more specific indications for mechanical ventilation and can be found in the table below.

Indications   Definition  Example
Apnea Absence of breathing Cardiac Arrest
Acute

Respiratory Failure (ARF)

Inability of a patient to maintain adequate: PaO2, PaCO2, and, potentially, pH. Hypoxemic RF

Hypercapnic RF

 

Impending

Respiratory Failure

 

Respiratory failure is immi-nent in spite of therapies.

Commonly defined as: 
 Pt is barely maintaining (or
 gradually deteriorating) normal  blood gases but
 with significant WOB.

Neuromuscular

Disease (N-M)

 

Status Asthmaticus

 

Chronic

Respiratory Failure

 

Repeated failures after attempts to liberate from the ventilator (extubations, Trach Collar trials, etc.) SEVERE:

Obesity Hypoventilation Syndrome

COPD

Pulmonary Fibrosis

 

Prophylactic

Ventilatory Support

 

 

Clinical indication = high risk of respiratory failure.

Ventilatory support is instituted to ↓ WOB,minimize O2consumption and hypoxemia, reduce cardiopulmonary stress, and/or control airway with sedation.

Brain injury

Heart muscle

Injury

Major surgery

Shock (prolonged)

Smoke injury

Trauma (some)

 

Hyperventilation Therapy

 

Ventilatory support is instituted to control and manipulate PaCO2 tor lower than normal level  Acute head injury

(↑ ICP)

(not immediately

after injury)

 

Respiratory failure can be acute or chronic and is classified as either hypoxemic or hypercapnic. During hypoxemic respiratory failure, the patient’s ventilatory demands exceed the lung’s ability to provide blood oxygenation resulting in muscle fatigue. Hypoxemic respiratory failure is defined as a PaO2 below the predicted normal range for the patient’s age under ambient conditions. A normal PaO2 for a patient that is 60 years or younger on room air is 80-100mmHg. When a patient is hypoxemic their body naturally responds to the low PaO2by increasing respiratory rate and/or tidal volume (an increase in minute ventilation). An increase in minute ventilation leads to hyperventilation. During hyperventilation, a greater than normal amount of CO2 is exhaled resulting in a low PaCO2 (hypocapnia).

Hypercapnic respiratory failure is defined as a PaCO2 level above 50mmHg and a rising and a falling pH of 7.25 or less. Hypercapnic respiratory failure may be accompanied by a normal or low PaO2. A patient who is experiencing hypercapnic respiratory failure is in imminent danger of cardiopulmonary arrest and mechanical ventilation is essential.

Once the need for mechanical ventilation has been established and the airway is secured the practitioner must select the type of ventilator, breath type and ventilator mode that is most appropriate for the patient.

The selection of a ventilatory support strategy is based on the type of respiratory failure the patient demonstrates. For example, a patient in hypoxemic respiratory failure can be treated with various oxygen therapy devices to manage the patient’s oxygenation status. The practitioner must be careful to identify when a patient is experiencing refractory hypoxemia. Refractory hypoxemia is a lack of oxygen in the blood that does not respond to oxygen alone. These patients experience intrapulmonary shunting, such as with pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and atelectasis, which requires PEEP along with oxygen. Patients who experience refractory hypoxemia can be treated with devices such as high flow oxygen delivery devices and CPAP.

In a patient presenting with hypercapnic respiratory failure, the patient must be treated with ventilatory support to mange the patients PaCO2 levels and acid-base status. For example, a patient in hypercapnic respiratory failure must be intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation. However, if hypercapnic respiratory failure is noticed soon enough then practitioners can treat these patients with noninvasive ventilatory support (NIPPV) or Bipap. NIPPV has been proven to be effective when implemented early and set correctly.

Either noninvasive ventilation or invasive ventilation can be used as a ventilatory support strategy. Noninvasive ventilation (NIV or NIPPV) is defined as any mode of ventilation that does not require an invasive artificial airway (endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube). NIV/NIPPV includes CPAP or CPAP in combination with any mode of pressure limited or volume limited ventilation (BiPaP).

Invasive mechanical ventilation is defined as positive pressure ventilation delivered via an endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube.

Once it as been determined that the patient should be placed on noninvasive mechanical ventilation one of two methods can be chosen:

1. CPAP (continuous positive airway pressure)

2. Noninvasive positive airway pressure (NIPPV) or BiPaP

Once it has been determined that the patient needs invasive mechanical ventilation the practitioner must determine the mode of ventilation and breath delivery type.

Modes of Ventilation

· Type of breath (mandatory, spontaneous, assisted)

· Targeted control breath (volume or pressure)

· Timing of breath delivery (continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV), SIMV, or spontaneous

There are three types of positive pressure ventilators.

Volume cycled

a. Pressure is applied to the airway until a preset volume is delivered.

b. Minute volume will remain constant.

c. Airway pressure will increase or decrease depending on the patient’s compliance and/or airway resistance.

d. Volume cycled ventilators can be used with most patients.

Pressure cycled

a. Apply positive pressure to the airways until a preset pressure limit is reached.

b. Tidal volume (Vt) is adjusted by increasing or decreasing the pressure limit.

c. Although peak pressure (PIP) will remain constant, the volume will change as lung compliance/resistance change.

Time cycled

a. These ventilators provide positive pressure until a preset time is reached.

b. The peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) is usually limited by an adjustable pop-off valve.

c. Tidal Volume (Vt) is adjusted by increasing or decreasing the peak inspiratory pressure, inspiratory time, or flow.

There are three breath delivery techniques aka modes of ventilation.

1. Continuous Mandatory Ventilation (CMV)

a. All breaths are mandatory and can be volume or pressure targeted.

b. Breaths can be patient triggered or time triggered.

c. When the breaths are patient triggered, CMV mode is called A/C (assist/control)

d. When the breaths are time triggered the CMV mode is called control mode.

e. CMV is commonly volume targeted (volume control continuous mandatory ventilation (VC-CMV)

f. CMV can also be pressure targeted (pressure control continuous mandatory ventilation (PC-CMV)

2. Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV)

a. Periodic volume-or pressure-targeted breaths occur at set intervals.

b. Between mandatory breaths, the patient breaths spontaneously at any desired pressure without receiving a mandatory breath.

c. Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV) works the same way as IMV except that the mandatory breaths are time triggered rather than patient triggered.

3. Spontaneous

a. Spontaneous breathing – the patient can breathe through the ventilator circuit (T-piece method). The ventilator monitors the patient’s breathing and can activate an alarm if necessary.

b. CPAP

c. PSV – (pressure support ventilation). The ventilator provides a constant pressure during inspiration once it senses the patient has made an inspiratory effort.

There are less frequently used modes such as MMV, APRV and PAV as well as HFV, which will be later discussed.

Initial Settings for Mechanical Ventilation

1. Ventilation mode

a. Control, assist/control, IMV/SIMV

b. Any mode is acceptable for initial set up

2. Tidal volume, respiratory rate, FiO2 and PEEP

a. Tidal volume – 6-8 ml/kg of ideal body weight

b. Respiratory rate – 12 -18 breaths per minute

c. FiO2 – if patient is on room air or you have no prior information, start the patient at 40-60%. If the patient is currently on oxygen, set the ventilator FiO2 to the patient’s current setting.

d. PEEP – if the patient is currently on PEEP/CPAP keep it at the same level. If the patient is not currently on PEEP/CPAP start at 0-10 cm H2O.

Ventilation Mode

Modes of ventilation

1. Assist Mode

a. Patient initiates all breaths

b. No minimum respiratory rate

2. Control Mode

2. Ventilator will initiate breaths at a preset rate

2. Does not allow patient to initiate breaths

2. Indicated for head trauma/surgery patients

1. Assist/Control

c. Allows patient to set the respiratory rate

c. The ventilator will maintain a minimum rate

c. May be used with most patients

c. Ventilator controls tidal volume for every breath

1. SIMV Mode

d. Allows patient to breath spontaneously

d. Ventilator provides a minimum minute ventilation

1. Pressure Control Ventilation (PCV)

e. Pressure controlled breaths

e. Used when PIP is very high

e. Exhaled Vt will vary

e. Adjust IT or PIP as needed.

1. Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV)

f. Pressure support adds a preset amount of pressure during a spontaneous breath

f. Helps the patient overcome the resistance of breathing through an ETT and ventilator circuit

Prompt

For this assignment, you will provide detailed responses to the following questions.

A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever and cough. His chest film shows a right middle lobe infiltrate. His room air ABG showed:

pH: 7.32 PCO2: 32 torr PO2: 78 torr HCO3- 18

He was started on antibiotics and admitted to the floor. Four hours later, the nurse calls because she is concerned he is doing worse. On your arrival to the room, his blood pressure is 85/60, his pulse is 120 beats/min and his oxygen saturation, which had been 97% on 2L oxygen via nasal cannula, is now 78% on a non-rebreather mask. The patient is obviously laboring to breathe with use of his accessory muscles and is less responsive than he was on admission. On the lung exam, he has crackles throughout the bilateral lung fields. The chest film now shows increasing bilateral, diffuse lung opacities. An ABG is done while on the non-rebreather and shows:

pH: 7.17 PCO2: 65 PO2: 58 HCO3- 16

1. Based on the clinical presentation of this patient, discuss how you would address the treatment. Include in your answer the following information: possible diagnosis, and what would be appropriate therapy (invasive vs noninvasive ventilation), and why?

2. Based on your choice of ventilation for this patient, discuss appropriate initial settings to properly ventilate this patient. Include and explain the following information in your answer:

If you choose noninvasive ventilation be sure to include IPAP and EPAP settings (defend your position). If you choose invasive ventilation be sure to include Mode of ventilation, Tidal Volume (VT), respiratory rate (frequency), oxygen percentage (FI02), Positive End Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) or any other therapy that may be indicated.

Submit your answers in at least 500 words on a Word document. You must cite at least three references in APA format and defend and support your position.

Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the genotype of a heterozygous individual would be expressed

81. In pea plants, yellow pea pods are dominant to green pea pods and round-shaped pods are dominant to wrinkled pods. How do the offspring of two plants that are heterozygous for yellow, round pods result in four different phenotypes? Is it the result of

A. Random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis.

B. Random fertilization during sexual reproduction.

C. Crossing over between chromosomes during meiosis.

D. Mutation in the DNA of the gametes.

82. In pea plants, yellow is a dominant trait and green is a recessive trait. In a genetic cross of two plants that are heterozygous for the pea color trait, what percent of the offspring should have yellow peas?

A. 100%

B. 75%

C. 50%

D. 25%

83. Advantages to using the garden pea for Mendel’s experiments included all listed below except

A. True-breeding varieties were scarce.

B. He could expect to observe segregation of traits among the offspring.

C. They have relatively short generation time.

D. Sex organs of the pea are enclosed within the flower.

84. Pea plants can

A. Self-pollinate, but are not self-compatible

B. Self-fertilize

C. Only cross-fertilize

D. Reproduce without pollination

85. When Mendel crossed pure-breeding purple and white flowered pea plants, the dominant to recessive ratio in the F1generation was

A. 3:1

B. 4:0

C. 4:1

D. 4:0

E. 9:3:3:1

86. On which of the following chromosomes are sex-linked traits carried?

A. 13

B. 18

C. Y

D.15

E. X

87. The genotype of an individual with Turner syndrome is

A. YO

B. XXY

C. XYY

D. XO

88. In Mendel’s F2 generation, one out of four plants had white flowers because

A. The trait is sex-linked

B. Both parents were heterozygous purple

C. One parent was homozygous recessive

D. Both parents were heterozygous white

89. In Mendel’s F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the dominant to recessive ratio was

A. 1:3:1

B. 3:1

C. 1:1

D. 9:7

E. 9:3:3:1

90. The appearance resulting from a given gene combination is referred to as the

A. Genotype

B. Phenotype

C. Phototype

E. Stereotype

91. A individual who has two of the same allele is said to be

A. Homozygous

B. Heteromologous

C. Homologous

D. Heterozygous

E. Diplozygous

92. Which of the following represents a dihybrid?

A. WWSs

B. WwSS

C. WwSs

D. WWss

E. wwSs

93.Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the genotype of a heterozygous individual would be expressed

A. sS

B. ss

C. SS

D. Ss

E. tall

94. The two alternatives for a trait are red and white and red is dominant. However, white is the most common trait. What is the genotype of a homozygous dominant individual?

A. RR

B. rr

C. WW

D. ww

E. red

95. In garden peas, height is determined by a single gene with tall being dominate to short. If two heterozygous plants are crossed, what proportion of the tall progeny will be homozygous dominant?

A. 3/4

B. 2/3

C. 1/2

D. 1/3

E. 1/4

96. The model for the dihybrid cross of heterozygotes predicts a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.

A. True

B. False

97. A trait caused by a recessive autosomal allele will result in a pedigree that shows affected individuals having at least one affected parent.

A) True

B) False

98 One gene can have multiple effects on an organism.

A. True

B. False

99. Down syndrome results from:

A. The absence of one chromosome in position 21

B. The presence of an extra chromosome in position 21

C. The absence of both chromosomes in position 21

D. Crossing over on the chromosomes in position 21

E. None of the above

100. Which of the following is not a result of nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes?

A. Down syndrome

B. Barr body

C. Turner syndrome

D. Klinefelter syndrome

During which stage of mitosis is the nuclear membrane broken into fragments?

61. During which stage of mitosis is the nuclear membrane broken into fragments? A. Metaphase  B. Early Prophase C. Anaphase  D. Late Prophase  62. Equatorial plate of the mitotic spindle is formed during the _______. A. Anaphase  B. Metaphase C. Late prophase  D. Early prophase

63. Mitotic cell division is initiated in the _______. A. Centromere  B. Centriole C. Mucleus  D. Mitotic spindle  64. During which stage of mitosis do nucleoli reappear? A. Anaphase  B. Early Prophase  C. Telophase D. Late Prophase  65. The number of chromosomes in a human cell is _______. A. 2  B. 4  C. 23  D. 46 66. The resting stage of the cell is known as the _______. A. Interphase B. Telophase  C. Anaphase  D. Prophase  67. During which stage of mitosis do chromatids separate to form two sets of daughter chromosomes? A. Anaphase B. Telophase  C. Prophase  D. Interphase  68. Genetic information is transferred from parent to daughter cells through the _______. A. Mitochondria  B. Endoplasmic reticulum  C. Centrioles  D. Nucleus 69. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?  Mitosis Stage A. Metaphase  B. Telophase  C. Anaphase D. Prophase 70. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?  Mitosis Stage A. Metaphase  B. Anaphase  C. Telophase D. Prophase

71. Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?  Mitosis Stage A. Anaphase  B. Metaphase  C. Prophase D. Telophase  72. Which of the following is the longest stage of mitosis? A. Telophase  B. Metaphase  C. Prophase D. Anaphase 73. During which stage of mitosis does longitudinal splitting of the chromosomes occur? A. Prophase  B. Anaphase C. Telophase  D. Metaphase

74. The interphase and mitosis together constitute the cell cycle. A. True B. False  75. The nuclear membrane is formed around the newly-formed sets of daughter chromosomes during the telophase. A. True B. False  76. During mitosis, loosely arranged strands of chromosomes become coiled, shortened and distinct during the metaphase. A. True  BFalse

77. Mendel’s second principle states that the inheritance of one characteristic will not affect the inheritance of another characteristic. What is the principle called?

A. Mutation

B. Fertilization

C. Crossing over

D. Independent assortment

78. Which statement describes how two organisms may show the same trait, yet have different genotypes for that phenotype?

A. One is homozygous dominant and the other is heterozygous.

B. One is homozygous dominant and the other is homozygous recessive.

C. Both are heterozygous for the dominant trait

D. Both are homozygous for the dominant trait.

79. Sexual reproduction contributes to

A. Less genetic variation within a population.

B. More identical genotypes within a population.

C. Greater genetic variation within a population.

D. Greater mutation rate within a population.

80. Which of the following genotypes has the potential for the greatest genetic variation in the offspring?

Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous recessive.

Heterozygous crossed with homozygous recessive.

Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous dominant.

Heterozygous crossed with another heterozygous individual.

What kinds of organisms perform cellular respiration?What kinds of organisms perform cellular respiration?

41 Which of the statements below are false with respect to gene probe technology?

A. Since first introduced in the 1970s, gene probe tests have been met only with periods of unbridled enthusiasm.

B.The ViraPap test is a commercially available gene probe test for detecting human papilloma virus (HPV), the virus that causes genital warts.

C. A similar technique can be used to conduct water-quality tests based on the detection of coliform bacteria such as E. coli

D. gene probes and PCR have been useful is in the detection of human immunodeficiency virus (H1V).

E. None of the above

42. When gene probe analysis becomes more widely accepted it will allow the identification of

A. Salmonella,

B. Shigella

C. Vibrio .

D. All of the above

43. Gene probe technology

A Is described as “exquisitely accurate”

B. Have a high degree of discrimination and reliability as strong as older identification methods.

C Allows one to get a result in a few short hours instead of many days

D. Is extremely sensitive

E. All of the above

44. Gene probe assays are widely available in kit forms for a variety of bacterial species except

A. Staphylococci

B. Haemophilus

C. Listeria

D Mycobacterium, and Neisseria

E Fungi (such as Blastomyces, Coccidioidesand Histoplasma).

45. The future value of gene probes will depend in part on

A. The development of ways to minimize false-positive reactions due to contamination

B. Methods of increasing the sensitivity of tests

C. On mechanisms for enhancing the signals from probes bound to their target molecules.

D. All of the above

E A & C only

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46. With respect to interpreting BLAST search results, when you do a BLAST search BLAST will come back with a result, that includes

A. The reference of the search program

B. The number of letters in your sequence C. The number of letters in the database D. A graphic representation of the sequence matches E. A list of matches sorted with the best matching sequences shown first F. All of the above

G. A, C & E only

47. In interpreting BLAST results select the answer below that is false.

A. If BLAST returns an E-value that is very small or close to zero, then you probably have a meaningful match that is not due to random chance. B. Since each match therefore contains 2 bits of information (and only 1 is correct out of 4 possibles), then the higher the score, the better is the match.

C. To interpret the matches, you therefore need to pay attention to whether the E-value is reasonably small

D. Two or more sequences may match extremely well but appear to belong to completely different species. E. None of the above

48. The process by which energy is obtained directly from sunlight and stored in organic compounds is called…

A. Transpiration

B. Photosynthesis

C. Accessory pigmentation

D. Respiration

E. Crassulacean acid metabolism

49. Organisms that manufacture their own food from inorganic substances and energy (photosynthesize and/or chemosythesize) are called…

A. Heterotrophs

B. Protists

C. Tertiary consumers

D. Autotrophs

E. Fungi

50 All living things *indirectly* get their food from…

A. Photosynthesis

B. Particle spin

C. Only chemosynthesis

D. Pigments

E. Water

51. What kinds of organisms perform cellular respiration?

A. Animals only

B. Plants only

C. All of them

D. Crustaceans only

52. The initial reactions in photosynthesis are known collectively as…

A. Thylakenisis

B. The light reactions

C. The Muller-Cooper reactions

D. The dark reactions

E. The Calvin pathway

53. The (blanks) of photosynthesis are the (blanks) of cellular respiration.

A. Pigments, products

B. Electrons, protons

C. Nucleotides, nitrogen bases

D. Products, reactants

E. Reactants, products

53. An orange carrot…

A. Refracts yellow light

B. Reflects all wavelengths of light except orange

C. Transmits blue and green light

D. Absorbs all wavelengths of light except orange

E. Absorbs violet light, but reflects red and green light

54. Photophosphorylation involves ATP

A. Production during the light reaction of photosynthesis

B. Breakdown during the light reaction of photosynthesis

C. Formation during the dark reaction of photosynthesis

D. Breakdown during the dark reaction of photosynthesis

55. The net equation for photosynthesis produces

A. Water and carbon dioxide

B. Water and oxygen

C. Carbohydrate and carbon dioxide

D. Carbohydrate and oxygen

56. As far as the light reaction of photosynthesis is concerned, what is the role of oxygen?

A. It is a necessary reactant.

B. It is a waste product.

C. It is a product that is then utilized in the dark reaction.

D. It is not involved as a product or a reactant.

57. The essential initial role of light in initiating the light reaction of photosynthesis is to produce

A. Free neutrons

B. Free electrons

C. Free oxygen

D. ATP

58. True or False question

 The proper way to focus a microscope is to start with the highest power objective (100X) first.

A. True

B. False

59. Resolving power is the ability to discern two objects as being distinct objects.

A. True

B. False

60. Which of the Statements below is false? A. Resolving power is also influenced by the NA of the objective. B. The air space between the slide and lens can be replaced by a drop of immersion oil which has a different refractive index than air. C. The use of oil immersion is an absolute necessity when using the 40X objective. D. When using the 40X and 100X objectives, only use the fine focus.