Ethical Theory And Business

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Explain Bowie’s argument in “Money, Morality and Motor Cars” regarding businesses’ obligations to the natural environment. Next, explain Arnold and Bustos’s main argument in “Business, Ethics, and Global Climate Change.” State their objections to Bowie’s view. Then explain their proposal for holding businesses accountable for greenhouse gas emissions. Explain whose view you agree with more and why.

 

Need at least 300 words; just using as a guide so if you have already answered this question before, I would be happy to purchase it. I’m willing to pay $5 and I need it by 10:00 am Central Standard time on September 6, 2013.

In practice, the __________ rule is preferred

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1) Occurs when a “follower” receives the benefit of an expenditure made by a “leader” by imitating the leader’s behavior. A. free-rider problem B. The Principle of Comparative Advantage C. asymmetric information D. put option 2) Occurs when inaccurate information can falsely exist. A. moral hazard B. The Principle of Valuable Ideas C. free-rider problem D. adverse selection 3) Refers to situations wherein the agent can take unseen actions for personal benefit even though such actions are costly to the principal. A. adverse selection B. moral hazard C. zero-sum game D. The Behavioral Principle 4) The annual report refers to A. a report issued annually by managers to primarily convey information about select working capital ratios. B. the length of time remaining until an asset’s maturity. C. a report issued annually by a firm that includes, at a minimum, an income statement, a balance sheet, a statement of cash flows, and accompanying notes. D. the extent to which something can be sold for cash quickly and easily without loss of value. 5) Remaining maturity refers to: A. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. B. a technical accounting term that encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. C. a report issued annually by a firm that includes, at a minimum, an income statement, a balance sheet, a statement of cash flows, and accompanying notes. D. the amount of time remaining until its maturity. 6) Generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) refers to A. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. B. a technical accounting term that encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. C. a report issued annually by a firm that includes, at a minimum, an income statement, a balance sheet, a statement of cash flows, and accompanying notes. D. the extent to which something can be sold for cash quickly and easily without loss of value. 7) Original maturity refers to: A. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. B. a technical accounting term that encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. C. the price for which something could be bought or sold in a reasonable length of time, where “reasonable length of time” is defined in terms of the item’s liquidity. D. the net amount (net book value) for something shown in quarterly accounting statements. 8) The firm’s assets in the balance sheet refer to: A. the extent to which something can be sold for cash quickly and easily without loss of value. B. the statement of a firm’s financial position at one point in time, including its assets and the claims on those assets by creditors (liabilities) and owners (stockholders’ equity). C. the productive resources in the firm’s operations 9) Book value (or Net book value) refers to: A. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. B. the statement of a firm’s financial position at one point in time, including its assets and the claims on those assets by creditors (liabilities) and owners (stockholders’ equity). C. the price for which something could be bought or sold in a reasonable length of time, where “reasonable length of time” is defined in terms of the item’s liquidity. D. the net amount shown in the accounting statements. 10) The return expected by equity investors is called the __________. A. market capitalization rate. B. dividend yield. C. average cost of capital. D. none of these 11) Assume that the par value of a bond is $1,000. Consider a bond where the coupon rate is 9% and the current yield is 10%. Which of the following statements is true? A. The market value of the bond is more than $1,000 B. The current yield was a lot less than 9% when the bond was first issued C. The current yield was a lot greater than 9% when the bond was first issued D. The market value of the bond is less than $1,000 12) Preferred stock payment obligations are typically __________. A. viewed like debt obligations. B. issued with a maturity date. C. valued as an annuity. D. none of these 13) Certain countries have restrictions. In practice, U.S. investors have NOT invested very much internationally. Possible factors include __________. A. lower transaction costs. B. less political risk. C. costs of converting currencies. D. all of these 14) Certain countries have restrictions. In practice, U.S. investors have NOT invested very much internationally. Possible factors include __________. A. non-listing of foreign securities on U.S. stock exchanges. B. foreign tax considerations. C. efficiency in converting currencies. D. all of these 15) For diversified investors, the proper measure of a stock’s risk is __________. A. its nonsystematic risk. B. its nondiversifiable risk. C. its specific risk. D. its standard deviation. 16) One problem with using negative values for w1 (the proportion invested in the riskless asset) to represent a borrowed amount is that the implied borrowing rate of interest is the same as __________. A. the lending rate of interest B. the prime rate of interest C. the current rate of interest D. the nominal rate of interest 17) Which of these investments would you expect to have the highest rate of return for the next 20 years? A. intermediate-term U.S. government bonds B. U.S. Treasury bills C. long-term corporate bonds D. anybody’s guess 18) According to the Principle of Risk-Return Trade-Off, investors require a higher return to compensate for __________. A. less risk B. lack of diversification C. diversification D. greater risk 19) Suppose the Ruskin Oil Corporation has $150,000 for both its book balance and its bank balance. It takes 4 days for a check to clear. If Ruskin writes a $3,000 check, which of the following statements is false? A. Ruskin’s available balance is $150,000, its book balance is $147,000, and its disbursement float is $3,000. B. If Ruskin writes a $3,000 check that takes 4 days to clear, during this period, $3,000 of disbursement float has been created. C. Ruskin’s book balance declines by the amount of the check, from $150,000 to $147,000, but the bank balance is unchanged until the check clears. D. After the check clears, the book and bank balances will both be $147,000 and there is no more disbursement float. 20) Stony Products has a payables turnover of six times. What is Stony’s payables deferral period (PDP)? A. about 30.42 days B. about 56.50 days C. about 60.83 days D. none of these The payables deferral period is the average length of time between the purchase of the materials and labor that go into inventory and the payment of cash for these materials and labor. We have: PDP = where PTO is the payables turnover and is equal to: where CS is cost of sales, SGA is selling, general, and administrative expenses, AP is account payables, and WBT is wages, benefits, and payroll taxes payable. We have: PDP = = = 60.83333 days ≈ 60.83 days. 21) Stony Products has a receivables turnover of ten times. What is Stony’s receivables collection period (RCP)? A. about 35.42 days B. about 36.50 days C. about 40.83 days D. none of these The receivables collection period (RCP), or days’ sales outstanding (DSO), is the average number of days that it takes to collect on accounts receivable. We have: RCP = where RTO is the receivables turnover and is equal to where AR is account receivables. We have: RCP = = = 36.5 days.] 22) __________ says to calculate the incremental after-tax cash flows connected with working capital decisions. A. The Principle of Time Value of Money B. The Signaling Principle C. The Principle of Incremental Benefits D. The Options Principle 23) __________ says to compare the benefits and costs of alternative uses and sources of money using after-tax APYs. A. The Principle of Incremental Benefits B. The Principle of Time Value of Money C. The Signaling Principle D. The Options Principle 24) Bank term loans represent __________. A. long-term loans that looks like short-term debt B. loans for specified amounts that require borrowers to repay them according to specified schedules C. the pledge of receivables D. all of these 25) Which (if any) of the below statements is false? A. Higher collection costs reduce the NPV and but cannot cause it to be negative. B. A customer who is likely to make late payments is also more likely to default and to require extra collection efforts. C. Credit bureau reports give information about any legal judgments against the firm. D. none of these 26) Credit-policy decisions involve all aspects of receivables management. The decision does NOT include which of the following? A. monitoring receivables and avoiding actions for slow payment B. setting evaluation methods and credit standards C. the choice of credit terms D. controlling and administering the firm’s credit functions 27) Most credit sales are made on an open account basis, which means __________. A. that customers cannot simply purchase what they want. B. that customers simply purchase what they want. C. that suppliers dictate the terms of the purchase. D. that suppliers cannot dictate the terms of the purchase. 28) An all-equity-financed firm would __________. A. not pay corporate income taxes because it would have no interest expense. B. not pay any income taxes because interest would exactly offset its taxable income. C. pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense. D. pay corporate income taxes if its taxable income is positive. 29) A profitable firm would __________. A. pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense. B. pay corporate income taxes because it would not have interest expense. C. pay corporate income taxes if it had a positive taxable income. D. none of these 30) Whenever a firm splits itself into separate units, with each unit having limited liability with respect to its financing, the capital structure of each unit becomes __________. A. an irrelevant consideration for a cost of capital. B. the relevant consideration for a cost of capital. C. important only if the firm faces financial distress. D. none of these 31) There are two important tax considerations for a capital budgeting project. These include which (if any) of the following? A. It is indeed cash flow that’s irrelevant. B. The standard cash flow estimation does not explicitly identify the financing costs. C. The Principle of Incremental Benefits reminds us that it is the incremental cash flow that’s relevant. D. none of these 32) Projects can be classified into various categories. These include: A. maintenance expenditures projects that involve replacing worn-out or damaged equipment. B. cost savings and revenue enhancement projects that include improvements in production technology to realize cost savings and marketing campaigns to achieve revenue enhancement. C. capacity expansion projects that involve expanding the current business by adding new equipment and facilities. D. all of these 33) Ideas for capital budgeting projects come from all levels within an organization. The bottom up process results in ideas percolating through the organization. A. sideways B. downward C. upward D. any way 34) In practice, the __________ rule is preferred. A. IRR B. NPV C. PI D. Payback 35) Whenever projects are both independent and conventional, then the IRR and NPV methods agree. Which of the following statements is true? A. A mutually exclusive project is one that can be chosen independently of other projects. B. When undertaking one project prevents investing in another project, and vice versa, the projects are said to have a positive payback. C. A conventional project is a project with an initial cash outflow that is followed by one or more expected future cash inflows. D. all of these

The role of Congress in determining when habeas corpus can be “suspended.”

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The final assignment for this course is a Final Paper. The purpose of the Final Paper is to give you an opportunity to apply much of what you have learned about American national government to an examination of civil liberties in the context of the war on terror. The Final Paper represents 20% of the overall course grade.

Soon after the U.S. invasion of Afghanistan in 2001, the Bush administration developed a plan for holding and interrogating captured prisoners. They were sent to a prison inside a U.S. naval base at Guantanamo Bay, on land leased from the government of Cuba. Since 2002, over 700 men have been detained at “GITMO.” Most have been released without charges or turned over to other governments. In 2011, Congress specifically prohibited the expenditure of funds to transfer GITMO prisoners to detention facilities in the continental United States, making it virtually impossible to try them in civilian courts. As of April 2012, 169 remained in detention at GITMO (Sutton, 2012).

An assumption made by the Bush administration in selecting this location was that it was beyond the jurisdiction of U.S. courts. The administration wanted to avoid any judicial oversight of how it handled detainees, characterized as “enemy combatants.” A possible legal challenge to indefinite detention with no formal charges or judicial proceedings might arise from the habeas corpus provision of the Constitution.

Article I, Section 9 of the Constitution states, “The Privilege of the Writ of Habeas Corpus shall not be suspended, unless when in Cases of Rebellion or Invasion the public Safety may require it.” Under this provision, persons detained by the government are entitled to a judicial hearing to determine if there is any legal basis for their detention. Some legal commentators refer to the right of habeas corpus as the “great writ of liberty” because it is a prisoner’s ultimate recourse to an impartial judge who can review the possibility that he is being held illegally by the executive (e.g., the police or the military). In nations that do not honor habeas corpus, people simply disappear into prisons without ever having their day in court.

Several controversial Supreme Court cases have come out of GITMO. One fundamental question that has been debated, but not clearly resolved, is to what extent the war on terror justifies the President’s indefinite detention of “enemy combatants” without the possibility of the minimal judicial review protected by habeas corpus? Another issue in the debate is to what extent Congress must clearly authorize the President to conduct extra-judicial detentions in order for them to be legal? In 2008, the Supreme Court’s decision in Boumediene v. Bush offered some answers to these questions. However, the deeply divided 5-4 Court and the likelihood of the protracted nature of the war on terror suggest that debate around these important questions will continue. Writing the Final Paper in this course will prepare you to participate intelligently as a citizen in this ongoing debate.

Write an essay about the right of habeas corpus in the context of the war on terror. Your essay should address the following subtopics:

 

  1. The general meaning of the right of habeas corpus in the U.S. Constitution and its relationship to the protection of other civil liberties.
  2. The historical evolution of habeas corpus, including its English and American traditions.
  3. Examples from U.S. history of the “suspension” of habeas corpus and their applicability to the present.
  4. The relevance of habeas corpus to the contemporary U.S. situation during the war on terror, especially with respect to persons characterized by the President as “enemy combatants” or “illegal combatants.”
  5. The U.S. Supreme Court’s interpretation of the right of habeas corpus with respect to “enemy combatants” or “illegal combatants” (i.e., the views of the five justices making up the majority in Boumediene v. Bush as well as the views of the four dissenting justices).
  6. Your evaluation of various perspectives on this topic expressed by justices of the Supreme Court, leaders in other branches of  government, and commentators in both the academic and popular media. Your assessment should consider several perspectives on this topic, including :
    • The role of the President as commander-in-chief.
    • The role of Congress in determining when habeas corpus can be “suspended.”
    • The role of the Supreme Court in protecting civil liberties, including the judicial philosophy which should guide the Court in this role, and
    • Your personal philosophy, values or ideology about the balance between civil liberties and national security in the context of an unending war on terror.

 

Follow these requirements when writing the Final Paper:

 

  1. The body of the paper (excluding the title page and reference page) must be at least 1,500 words long.
  2. The paper must start with a short introductory paragraph which includes a clear thesis statement.  The thesis statement must tell readers what the essay will demonstrate.
  3. The paper must end with a short paragraph that states a conclusion.  The conclusion and thesis must be consistent.
  4. The paper must logically develop the thesis in a way that leads to the conclusion, and that development must be supported by facts, fully explained concepts and assertions, and persuasive reasoning.
  5. The paper must address all subtopics outlined above. At least 20% of the essay must focus on subtopic 6, above (your evaluation of arguments about the topic).
  6. Your paper must cite at least three academic articles (excluding the course textbook) and at least four other kinds of sources (e.g., Supreme Court opinions, magazine or newspaper articles, the course textbook, and reliable websites or videos).
  7. Use your own words. While brief quotes from sources may be used, altogether the total amount of quoted text must be less than five percent of the body of your paper.
  8. When you use someone else’s words, they must be enclosed in quotation marks followed by an APA in-text short citation – (Author, Year, page) – to your source. The in-text citation must correspond to a full APA citation for the source on the reference page at the end of the essay.
  9. When you express in your own words someone else’s ideas, arguments or facts, your statement must be followed by an APA in-text short citation – (Author, Year, page) – to your source.  The in-text citation must correspond to a full APA citation for the source in the reference page.
  10. The form of the title page, the body pages, and the reference page must comply with APA style.  Additionally, the title page must include the course number and name, the instructor’s name, and the date submitted.
  11. The paper must use logical paragraph and sentence transitions, complete and clear sentences, and correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation.

 

For this paper you need to do research in peer-reviewed journals or other sources that are considered to have reliable information. In addition to your required course text, you need at least seven professional scholarly sources, three of which must be peer reviewed journal articles from the Ashford Online Library.

Academic research papers must meet university level standards of quality. What constitutes quality, academic research?

 

  • Primary sources written by experts in the field of study
  • Secondary sources supported by research in primary sources
  • Credible sources (experts in the area of study)
  • Relevant research (materials are pertinent to the area of study)
  • Peer-reviewed journal articles (journal articles reviewed by recognized experts in the relevant field of study).
  • Educational and Government websites (those ending with a web URL suffix of .edu or .gov) may be appropriate in some cases but should be evaluated carefully.

 

Please visit the Academic Research section on your course homepage (accessible through the Student Responsibilities and Policies tab on the left navigation toolbar) to review what types of materials are not acceptable for academic, university level research.

The paper must be at least 1500 words in length and formatted according to APA style. Cite your sources within the text of your paper and on the reference page. For information regarding APA, including samples and tutorials, visit the Ashford Writing Center within the Learning Resources tab on the left navigation toolbar.

Carefully review theGrading Rubric for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment.

 

Corporate Ethics Code

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Perform an Internet search and find an example of an actual corporate code of ethics. Critique it from the perspective that it stipulates the firm’s commitment to operate every facet of the business morally and ethically. Does the firm urge all its employees to uphold the code and perform only in ethically acceptable ways? Does the code discuss the firm’s values and reflect the corporate culture?