What is in some fish and shellfish that has caused the EPA and FDA to issue the restriction?

16 questions in total

DUE TUESDAY MARCH 1ST AT 6PM

ENVIROMENTAL SCIENCE- CASE STUDY

 

Part II

1. What is in some fish and shellfish that has caused the EPA and FDA to issue the restriction?

2. Why is there a restriction for pregnant women and young children, but not the rest of the population? 3. Do pregnant women have to avoid all fish? Explain your answer.

4. Should Amanda have avoided the pan-seared tuna for lunch?

Part III

1. What human actions lead to increased mercury levels in the environment?

2. How does the mercury end up in fish? Draw a flow chart following the mercury path.

3. Where in the United States are mercury wet deposition levels highest? What do you think explains this pattern?

4. The EPA criterion for human health is 0.3 ug/g. Which fish species have average mercury concentrations that exceed the EPA limits?

5. The concern level for piscivorous (fish-eating) mammals is 0.1 Hg ug/g. Which fish species have average mercury concentrations that exceed this limit? Why is the mercury level for piscivorous mammals lower than the level for human health?

6. Should you be concerned about mercury toxicity if you catch and eat a largemouth bass in a local lake? Why or why not?

7. In which samples were mercury concentrations the highest (fi sh, streams, or sediment)? Why do you think this is?

Part IV

1. Draw a food web for Lake Washington using the species and food preferences given in Table 3. Start with phytoplankton (algae) as the base of your web and then build up the food chain.

2. Label the species in your food chain as either high (>100 ug/kg), medium (20-100 ug/kg), or low (below20 ug/kg) mercury concentrations. Which types of animals have the highest levels of mercury? Which types of animals have the lowest? Why do you think this is?

Final Activity

1. Imagine you are Tara. Write an email to your friend Amanda explaining what you have learned about mercury. Be sure to convey the aspects of your learning that will be most useful to Amanda.

2. Find two other examples of compounds that biomagnify. Explain how each compound and/or toxin enters the biosphere and what impacts it has on living organisms in general and humans in particular.

 

3. Distinguish between bioaccumulation and biomagnifi cation and design a mnemonic device

Page 1“Tuna for Lunch?” by Caralyn B. Zehnder

Part I – The Problem Amanda and Tara had been friends since the eighth grade. Th ey kept in touch through college and Tara was Amanda’s maid-of-honor at her wedding. Now with careers and hectic schedules, they didn’t get to see each other as often as they would like but they still tried to get together every so often. Th is afternoon was one of those lucky occasions when they were meeting for lunch at Th e Garden, a restaurant they regularly visited.

Amanda was sitting at a table near the window when Tara walked into the restaurant. Amanda jumped up and the two friends hugged.

“How have you been? You look great!” Tara exclaimed to her friend.

“I’m well. How are you?”

“I’m fi ne. Why are you grinning like that? What secret are you hiding?” said Tara as the two friends sat down.

“I wanted to wait to tell you in person—I’m pregnant!”

“Congratulations, Amanda! You and Chad must be so excited. When are you due? Do you have morning sickness? Do you know if it’s a boy or girl? What about names?

Just then their waitress came over and asked them if they were ready to order.

“I’ll have what I always have,” said Tara. “Pan-seared tuna with lime pepper crust and a garden salad, please.”

“Th at sounds great,” said Amanda. “But I don’t think I am going to order tuna like I usually do. My doctor said that I shouldn’t eat certain types of fi sh more than once or twice per week and I think tuna is one of those fi sh. I’ll have the Fettuccini Alfredo instead.”

Th e waitress wrote down their orders and walked away.

“I knew I would have to cut back on coff ee and not drink alcohol because of the baby, but I didn’t know about this fi sh restriction,” said Amanda. “I’m not sure why I can regularly eat some fi sh but not others. I thought fi sh was healthy and good for you. You have a degree in biology; do you know why my doctor doesn’t want me to eat tuna?”

“I’m not sure,” said Tara. “It’s been a few years since my last biology class, but I’ll try to track down some information about fi sh and pregnancy and see what I can fi nd.”

NANANANATITITITIONONONONALALALAL C CCCENENENENTETETET R RR R FOFOFOFOR R R R CACACASESESEE S S STUTUTUT DYDYDYD T T TTEAEAEAEAACHCHCHCHINININING GG G ININININ SS S SCICICICIENENENENCECECECE

by Caralyn B. Zehnder Department of Biological and Environmental Sciences Georgia College and State University, Milledgeville, GA

Tuna for Lunch? A Case Study Examining Mercury Bioaccumulation and Biomagnification

 

 

NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE

“Tuna for Lunch?” by Caralyn B. Zehnder Page 2

Part II – Why Would Some Fish Be Restricted? Th at evening, Tara decided to do a little online investigation for her friend. She Googled “pregnancy” and “fi sh restriction” and came up with a list of articles, blogs, and websites. She scrolled through the list and settled on the following website from the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

Questions 1. What is in some fi sh and shellfi sh that has caused the EPA and FDA to issue the restriction? 2. Why is there a restriction for pregnant women and young children, but not the rest of the population? 3. Do pregnant women have to avoid all fi sh? Explain your answer. 4. Should Amanda have avoided the pan-seared tuna for lunch?

2004 EPA and FDA Advice for: Women Who Might Become Pregnant, Women Who are Pregnant, Nursing Mothers, Young Children

Fish and shellfi sh are an important part of a healthy diet. Fish and shellfi sh contain high- quality protein and other essential nutrients, are low in saturated fat, and contain omega-3 fatty acids. A well-balanced diet that includes a variety of fi sh and shellfi sh can contribute to heart health and children’s proper growth and development. So, women and young children in particular should include fi sh or shellfi sh in their diets due to the many nutritional benefi ts.

However, nearly all fi sh and shellfi sh contain traces of mercury. For most people, the risk from mercury by eating fi sh and shellfi sh is not a health concern. Yet, some fi sh and shellfi sh contain higher levels of mercury that may harm an unborn baby or young child’s developing nervous system. Th e risks from mercury in fi sh and shellfi sh depend on the amount of fi sh and shellfi sh eaten and the levels of mercury in the fi sh and shellfi sh. Th erefore, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) are advising women who may become pregnant, pregnant women, nursing mothers, and young children to avoid some types of fi sh and eat fi sh and shellfi sh that are lower in mercury.

By following these 3 recommendations for selecting and eating fi sh or shellfi sh, women and young children will receive the benefi ts of eating fi sh and shellfi sh and be confi dent that they have reduced their exposure to the harmful eff ects of mercury.

1. Do not eat Shark, Swordfi sh, King Mackerel, or Tilefi sh because they contain high levels of mercury.

2. Eat up to 12 ounces (2 average meals) a week of a variety of fi sh and shellfi sh that are lower in mercury. • Five of the most commonly eaten fi sh that are low in mercury are shrimp, canned

light tuna, salmon, pollock, and catfi sh. • Another commonly eaten fi sh, albacore (“white”) tuna has more mercury than

canned light tuna. So, when choosing your two meals of fi sh and shellfi sh, you may eat up to 6 ounces (one average meal) of albacore tuna per week.

3. Check local advisories about the safety of fi sh caught by family and friends in your local lakes, rivers, and coastal areas. If no advice is available, eat up to 6 ounces (one average meal) per week of fi sh you catch from local waters, but don’t consume any other fi sh during that week.

 

 

NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE

“Tuna for Lunch?” by Caralyn B. Zehnder Page 3

Part III – How Does Mercury Get into Fish? Tara decided to share this information with her friend. She picked up her cell phone and texted Amanda: “Some fi sh have mercury in them which is bad for your baby. I’m emailing you a brochure.” A few minutes later she had a new message from Amanda: “How does mercury get into fi sh and why are some fi sh high in mercury and others low?”

Since these questions were a little more complicated, Tara decided to e-mail her friend Michelle, who was a scientist working for EPA. Th e next day there was a reply from Michelle in her inbox.

From: Michelle Lapensa [mlapensa44@epa.gov] To: Tara Trepanski [ttfortwo@hotmail.com] CC: Subject: re: question for you about mercury Attachments:

Hi Tara,

Mercury can be highly toxic – it can cause nerve damage in young children and developing fetuses, which is why your friend’s doctor recommended that she limit her fi sh intake. The fetus’s developing nervous system is more vulnerable to mercury than an adult nervous system. Mercury is a naturally occurring element, and volcanoes and rock weathering can introduce mercury into the environment. However, human activities have been increasing mercury concentrations globally. Coal-burning power plants are the most common source of mercury pollution. Coal is naturally contaminated with mercury and, when it is burned, the mercury simply goes up the smokestack and into the air. Then the mercury is deposited in rain (wet deposition) or it falls from the sky (dry deposition) onto the ground and, more importantly, in water. I’ve attached a map showing mercury wet deposition across the U.S. Aquatic bacteria convert inorganic mercury (Hg) to the organic form methylmercury (MeHg), which is highly toxic. So it’s the methylmercury in fi sh that is of concern. The U.S. Geological Survey recently completed a mercury survey of freshwater environments and I’ve attached a summary of their report.

National Atmospheric Deposition Program/Mercury Deposition Network

Total Mercury Wet Deposition, 2008

2 (μμg/m ) Hg

4 4 – 6 6 – 8 8 – 10 10 – 12 12 – 14 14 – 16 16 – 18 > 18

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Online Scavenger Hunt For Success

Name:

Date:

Instructor:

 

Online Scavenger Hunt for Success

 

The basics (each question worth 5 point) 20 pts total

1. From the first section in the book what are 5 environmental concerns you will learn about in this class? Question worth 5 points.

a.

b.

 

c.

 

d.

 

e.

 

 

2. Every field is impacted by the environment, be it being the source or a product, source of a service, a concern to meet an environmental regulation…. How do you feel learning about the environment will impact your future career? (minimum of 50 words; question worth 5 points)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

1. Everything is made from chemicals. In blogs or news articles, you might hear about chemicals being a concern, but this is too vague. For example you can say water is a problem because it is a chemical, but this is still not saying why. Find an example of a chemical you want to learn about. Question worth 5 points

a. What is this chemical made from?

 

b. How can it be helpful?

 

 

c. What it is likely to pollute (air, water, or land)?

 

d. How can the problem be lessened?

 

 

e. Provide a full reference for your authoritative source you used to answer this question

 

2. Ozone is a complex chemical. In the1980’s a big concern was the hole in the ozone. What is the current status of the ozone hole? Now, you might hear more about ozone warning while driving. What causes this and why is it is problem? What references did you use to answer this question? (minimum of 50 words; question worth 5 points)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Completing Research (5 points each- 3 for correct example, 2 for reason) 20 pts total

In science a research paper needs to have authoritative sources and all facts need to be cited. This does not mean you want to have lots of quotes, but instead paraphrase your material and cite the source

Many times if it tempting to use popular media as a source. However, this means it could be biased.

Go to: https://mediabiasfactcheck.com/

1. Find one source that could be considered Left biased and explain why (minimum of 20 words; question worth 5 points).

 

 

2. Find one source that could be considered right biased and explain why (minimum of 20 words; question worth 5 points).

 

 

 

 

 

 

3. Find a source that is considered conspiracy-pseudoscience and explain why with an example of pseudoscience (minimum of 20 words; question worth 5 points).

 

 

 

4. Find a pro-science source that might be ok for a research paper to get more current information then a peer reviewed source. (minimum of 20 words; question worth 5 points)

 

 

 

 

 

Citing and referencing help (each topic 10 pts) 30pts total

5. Using the library, find 3 separate articles to help you write about 3 of the following topics below ( remember to choose 3 topics, not just 1 ). Please pick 3 topics from this list: endangered species, environmental toxin farming, sustainable building materials , or water pollution to answering the following questions:

1. Why would you use this article? (3 pts)

2. Create a full reference for this source (2 pts)

3. Paraphrase a fact from this source and insert an in text citation (2pts)

4. Find a quote Create an intext citation (2pts)

 

© 2018. Grand Canyon University. All Rights Reserved.

Environmental Science

1) If atmospheric carbon dioxide was eliminated from our atmosphere, we would expect that the

 

Earth would:

 

A) cool considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically increase

 

B) cool considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically decrease

 

C) heat up considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically increase

 

D) heat up considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically decrease

 

2) Which of the following is a correlation that is causing widespread concern?

 

A) As atmospheric oxygen levels decline, the ozone layer is being destroyed.

 

B) As atmospheric carbon dioxide levels decline, the ozone layer is being destroyed.

 

C) As levels of methane decline, average global temperatures are increasing.

 

D) As levels of carbon dioxide increase, average global temperatures are increasing.

 

3) Which of the following is part of natural capital but not ecosystem capital?

 

A) solar energy used to drive photosynthesis throughout the biosphere

 

B) coal and oil reserves

 

C) the production of electrical energy from wind turbines and dams

 

D) the genetic diversity of all plants and animals used in modern agriculture

 

4) From an ecological economist’s perspective, without sustainability, as economies grow:

 

A) gross national product grows too

 

B) natural resources are renewed

 

C) the natural world is depleted

 

D) natural ecosystems are replenished

 

5) Natural capital includes ecosystem capital plus:

 

A) natural forms of energy, such as solar, wind, and flowing water

 

B) nonrenewable resources such as fossil fuels

 

C) money available to invest in growing industry

 

D) all of the products of photosynthesis in the biosphere

 

6) The concept of sustainability requires that:

 

A) economic growth does not exceed the renewal of natural capital

 

B) all sources of energy used in an economy must come from the sun

 

C) global economic systems are based on the harvesting of natural products

 

D) economies use equal portions of land, labor, and capital

 

7) Uncertain about the best way to keep his new lizard alive, Jerome places a heat lamp at one

 

end of the long lizard cage. Over several days, Jerome notices that the lizard tends to sit in a

 

certain place when the lamp is on. The lizard’s selection of a particular place to stay

 

represents its:

 

A) range of tolerance

 

B) temperature optimum

 

C) biotic conditioning

 

D) use of a limited resource

 

8) As global climate change warms certain mountain ranges, the temperature optima for the insect

 

species living on the mountain is causing these insects to:

 

A) move higher up the mountain

 

B) move down the mountain

 

C) move to a new biome

 

D) become parasitic

 

9) Energy is lost as it moves from one trophic level to the next because:

 

A) one trophic level does not consume the entire trophic level below it

 

B) some of the calories consumed drive cellular activities and do not add mass

 

C) some ingested materials are undigested and eliminated

 

D) All of the above.

 

10) In general, biomes at higher latitudes are most like:

 

A) biomes at higher altitudes

 

B) aquatic biomes

 

C) biomes at lower altitudes

 

D) biomes at lower latitudes

 

11) Biomes with more than 75 centimeters (30 inches) of rain a year and that never experience

 

freezing temperatures are most likely found:

 

A) at high altitudes

 

B) nearest the equator at low altitudes

 

C) at high altitudes in temperate zones

 

D) at high altitudes and high latitudes

 

12) Biomes with permafrost are most likely:

 

A) covered in coniferous forests at high latitudes

 

B) in temperate zones with deciduous trees

 

C) located near the poles and without any trees

 

D) located at high altitudes nearest the equator

 

13) Biomes with less than 25 centimeters (10 inches) of rain a year are:

 

A) high in primary productivity

 

B) likely to have extremely cold winters

 

C) covered with coniferous trees

 

D) deserts

 

14) Which of the following are current limiting factors for future human population growth?

 

A) pollution and land for agriculture

 

B) availability of oxygen and water

 

C) fossil fuels and carbon dioxide production

 

D) oxygen levels in the atmosphere and availability of sodium chloride

 

15) According to demographer Joel Cohen, the human carrying capacity:

 

A) can be calculated in the same way it is determined for other animal species

 

B) depends upon a standard of living

 

C) can clearly be determined

 

D) largely depends upon the availability of fresh water

 

16) In a significant 2004 paper reviewing 69 studies on world human population and carrying

 

capacity, the authors estimated that the sustainable carrying capacity of humans for the

 

planet is about:

 

A) 600 million

 

B) 2.5 billion

 

C) 7.7 billion

 

D) 20 billion.

 

17) According to the UN Population Division and a significant 2004 paper reviewing 69 studies

 

on world human population and carrying capacity, the world population of humans will exceed

 

carrying capacity in about the year:

 

A) 2014

 

B) 2024

 

C) 2050

 

D) 2100

 

18) Which of the following activities would be consistent with the Millennium Development Goals?

 

A) help communities build technical and trade schools for boys to learn skills in high

 

demand

 

B) develop coal, gold, and silver mines wherever possible as quick sources of jobs

 

C) provide meals and mosquito nets for every child under the age of five

 

D) encourage the expansion of national militaries to provide income and technical training

 

19) If the Millennium Development goal to eradicate extreme poverty and hunger by 2015 is

 

achieved:

 

A) almost a billion people will still live in extreme poverty

 

B) no continent will have more than 10,000 people still hungry

 

C) fertility rates will decline to those of most European nations

 

D) the rural population of the world will nearly double

 

20) Which of the following represents the Millennium Development Goal that is least likely to be

 

achieved?

 

A) universal primary education

 

B) reduced child mortality

 

C) increased access to clean drinking water

 

D) decreased maternal childbirth deaths

 

21) Which of the following affects the greatest number of people in the developing world?

 

A) water availability

 

B) lack of primary schools for children

 

C) inadequate sanitation

 

D) no childhood immunization for measles

 

22) A rural farmer most likely obtains drinking water by drilling a deep well to use:

 

A) gravitational water that has percolated through soil and accumulated as groundwater

 

B) gravitational water that is retained by the soil and accumulated just above the water

 

table

 

C) capillary water found in surface waters, located above the water table

 

D) capillary water that has percolated through soil and accumulated below the

 

groundwater

 

23) About 99% of all liquid fresh water on Earth is found in:

 

A) lakes, including the Great Lakes of North America

 

B) rivers such as the Amazon, Nile, and Mississippi watersheds

 

C) underground aquifers

 

D) the upper few meters of topsoil

 

24) Which one of the following is fed by groundwater and often drained by seeps or springs?

 

A) lakes

 

B) aquifers

 

C) rivers

 

D) watersheds

 

25) In Costa Rica, a heavy downpour provides water that quickly evaporates or is absorbed and

 

released by the dense vegetation of the tropical rain forest. This is an example of a cycle

 

using:

 

A) condensation, evaporation, transpiration, and green water

 

B) condensation, precipitation, and gravitational water

 

C) evaporation, gravitational flow, and adiabatic cooling

 

D) precipitation, gravitational flow, and convection

 

26) Gutters and storm sewers in a city are most concerned with the:

 

A) evapotranspiration loop

 

B) surface runoff loop

 

C) precipitation loop

 

D) groundwater loop

 

27) Which one of the following soil orders is the most typical of drylands and deserts?

 

A) alfisols

 

B) oxisols

 

C) mollisols

 

D) aridisols

 

28) A hydric soil is one that:

 

A) is typical of wetlands and may contain peat

 

B) is unusually well suited for agriculture

 

C) is typical of tropical areas that receive abundant rainfall

 

D) was typical of the U.S. prairie states until the Dust Bowl of the 1930s

 

29) Which of the following would be best suited for planting crops such as corn or wheat?

 

A) an irrigated aridisol

 

B) a fertilized alfisol

 

C) a plowed oxisol

 

D) an irrigated gelisol

 

30) Most plants acquire their minerals from:

 

A) the recycling of nutrients from detritus

 

B) the precipitation of minerals from rainfall

 

C) the weathering of rock

 

D) dust storms that transport minerals into a region

 

31) Which of the following would be classified as “soil constraints”?

 

A) cold climate

 

B) moderate to heavy rainfall

 

C) poor drainage, salinity and high levels of aluminum

 

D) low erosion potential and high levels of phosphorus

 

32) One of the general concerns about the widespread use of transgenic organisms is the:

 

A) spread of these transgenic traits to other organisms

 

B) need to apply more pesticides to crops and plow the soil twice a year

 

C) reduced yields that result from using bioengineered organisms

 

D) pressure to bring more land into agricultural production

 

33) If you live in the United States, chances are that you have consumed some processed food

 

that includes bioengineered plants:

 

A) almost every day

 

B) at most once a month

 

C) perhaps once a year

 

D) once in your lifetime

 

34) Wood pellets are produced from the waste sawdust of lumber and paper mills. Home-heating

 

stoves burning these pellets can heat homes directly, instead of relying on other energy

 

sources. Heating your home with wood pellets is:

 

A) sustainable, less polluting, and more efficient than heating a home using electricity

 

from a coal-fired power plant

 

B) sustainable, much more polluting, and is about 30% more efficient than using

 

electricity from a coal-fired power plant

 

C) not sustainable but is less polluting and is about as efficient as using electricity from a

 

coal-fired power plant

 

D) not sustainable and actually pollutes more than using electricity from a coal-fired

 

power plant

 

35) Which one of the following energy sources is most likely to lead to thermal pollution?

 

A) a coal-fired power plant

 

B) a large field of windmills

 

C) a hydroelectric plant

 

D) a large field of solar cells

 

36) The future use of electricity to power personal transportation largely depends on:

 

A) more efficient turbogenerators

 

B) finding more fossil fuel supplies

 

C) low-cost, lightweight batteries that can store large amounts of power

 

D) the development of small turbogenerators for automobiles

 

37) Instead of only generating more electricity, rising energy demands may also be met by:

 

A) switching from natural gas to coal

 

B) switching from coal and natural gas to windmills and solar technologies

 

C) increasing the efficiency of energy consumption

 

D) using more nuclear power instead of fossil fuels

 

38) At present, the total number of long-term, commercial, below-ground nuclear waste

 

depository sites in use in the United States is:

 

A) 0

 

B) 7

 

C) 23

 

D) over 100

 

39) One of the major problems associated with long-term, high-level nuclear waste storage is:

 

A) selecting an environment that will remain stable for more than 10,000 years

 

B) determining a cost-effective way to shoot waste into space

 

C) figuring out how to contain the material so that it does not leak into the ocean

 

D) creating a secure environment to protect the material from terrorists

 

40) Yucca Mountain in the state of Nevada is:

 

A) the location of a leaky nuclear power plant that will cost billions of dollars to clean up

 

B) the only potential site for long-term commercial nuclear waste storage in the United

 

States, rejected for safety concerns in 2009

 

C) a military base that has accumulated low-level and high-level nuclear waste for many

 

decades

 

D) the site of a lake that received illegal dumping of nuclear waste in the 1960s

 

41) NIMBY is:

 

A) a publicly perceived risk of siting a toxic or nuclear waste disposal facility near their

 

homes

 

B) the U.S. federal agency that oversees nuclear power facilities

 

C) a U.N. organization in Geneva that directs the medical use of radioactive isotopes

 

D) the deciding factor in the approval of theYucca Mountain disposal site in Nevada

 

42) The Obama administration’s commission on nuclear power waste disposal recommended:

 

A) the process of site selection should be kept secret from the public

 

B) a private for-profit corporation should be engaged to choose and construct the facility

 

C) that the sites should be spread over dozens of freshwater lakes in the northern United

 

States

 

D) there is an immediate need to develop temporary geological storage sites until a

 

permanent one is located

 

43) New Generation III nuclear plants such as the AP1000 Advanced Passive Reactor features:

 

A) a combination of nuclear fusion and fission in a single design

 

B) a pressurized water system with many new passive safety features to prevent a LOCA

 

C) a design that uses a mechanical source of X-rays for power

 

D) designs based on the Fukushima Daiichi plant in Japan

 

44) In a photovoltaic system, an inverter is required to:

 

A) directly convert surplus electricity into heat

 

B) generate electricity from solar energy

 

C) connect the DC current of the solar panel to the AC current of an electrical grid

 

D) convert AC from the solar panel into DC of the grid

 

45) Around the world, photovoltaic technology is quickly being adopted to generate electricity in:

 

A) large scale commercial power plants and on rooftop home units

 

B) large scale commercial power plants but not yet on rooftop home units

 

C) rooftop home units but not large scale commercial power plants

 

D) small electronic applications such as calculators but not yet on rooftops or in

 

commercial power plants

 

46) The most costly aspect of photovoltaic technology is being addressed by:

 

A) inventing a way to convert alternating current to direct current

 

B) inventing a way to convert direct current to alternating current

 

C) finding a way to reduce the damaging effects of the sun on solar panels

 

D) new technologies that reduce the cost of manufacturing solar cells

 

47) Solar trough technology converts:

 

A) the ultraviolet light in sunlight directly into electricity

 

B) the heat of the sun into steam to drive a turbogenerator

 

C) sunlight into electricity which then produces steam heat

 

D) the direct current generated by photovoltaic cells into alternating current

 

48) Some milk becomes contaminated with mercury. If each of the following people consume 16

 

ounces of this contaminated milk each day for a month, who will most likely be impacted by

 

this poison?

 

A) an 82-year-old woman

 

B) a fetus inside a mother who drinks this contaminated milk

 

C) a 12-year-old girl

 

D) a 51-year-old man

 

49) A pharmacist asks a mother about a new prescription for an antibiotic, wanting to be sure that

 

the drug is for the mother. The pharmacist is most likely concerned because:

 

A) antibiotics do not typically work on children

 

B) most types of antibiotics prescribed to an adult will likely kill a child

 

C) a normal dosage for an adult can be toxic to a child

 

D) a normal child’s dosage may be toxic to an adult

 

50) You learn that an old friend has died from a disease that resulted from their lifelong exposure

 

to a substance. This loved one most likely died from:

 

A) whooping cough

 

B) a bacterial infection

 

C) cancer

 

D) malaria

 

51) Which of the following contains the greatest number of carcinogens?

 

A) a thick vanilla milkshake

 

B) a Twinkie snack

 

C) chewing tobacco

 

D) tap water from most cities in the United States

 

52) You examine an ice core sample from 10,000 years ago when global temperatures were

 

unusually high. Based upon past studies and insights from current GHG levels, we expect that

 

atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide:

 

A) and methane were unusually low

 

B) and methane were unusually high

 

C) were high but methane levels were low

 

D) were low but methane levels were high

 

53) In his movie, An Inconvenient Truth, Al Gore warns of increasing levels of carbon dioxide in

 

the atmosphere which suggest that:

 

A) methane levels will soon rise, destroying the ozone layer

 

B) global temperatures will also continue to rise

 

C) the oceans of the world are losing carbon dioxide

 

D) clouds are thinning and global precipitation is declining

 

54) Evidence from proxies indicate eight major oscillations in global temperatures over the past

 

800,000 years, most likely the result of:

 

A) rising and falling sea levels that greatly impact photosynthetic activity

 

B) variations in solar activity that produce different levels of radiation

 

C) Milankovitch cycles of periodic variations in Earth’s orbits around the sun

 

D) lunar cycles in which the moon orbits at different distances from the Earth

 

55) In general, temperatures along an ocean coastline vary less than temperatures 100 miles

 

inland. This moderation of temperatures along coastlines is because:

 

A) as the oceans evaporate it cools off the coastlines

 

B) the sun shines more intensely away from the ocean coastlines

 

C) ocean temperatures change more quickly than air temperatures

 

D) ocean temperatures do not change as quickly as air temperatures

 

56) In our world, something with the greatest heat capacity is able to:

 

A) evaporate the most water from its surface

 

B) retain its heat the longest

 

C) insulate the best

 

D) reflect the greatest amount of sunshine

 

57) If the sun suddenly stopped shining, where would be the best outdoor location to stay warm

 

with the least change in ambient temperature?

 

A) Atlanta, Georgia

 

B) on a beach in Hawaii

 

C) Kansas City, Kansas

 

D) the center of Brazil

 

58) Which one of the following principles of smart-growth will most likely result in less commuting

 

for all residents?

 

A) have states purchase open spaces

 

B) set physical boundaries on urban sprawl

 

C) build new homes and stores on existing abandoned or brownfield urban properties

 

D) promote the integration of homes, stores, light industry, and professional offices

 

59) According to the U.S. Sprawlometer, the most sprawling and congested area is:

 

A) New York

 

B) Los Angeles

 

C) Greensboro, NC

 

D) Riverside, CA

 

60) The Obama administration has moved to combat urban sprawl through the:

 

A) Clean Air Act

 

B) Clean Water Act

 

C) American Recovery and Reinvestment Act

 

D) ISTEA

 

61) Over the past 60 years, as people moved from U.S. cities to suburbs, the people that were left

 

behind in the cities were primarily:

 

A) older, poor people representing ethnic minorities

 

B) younger, wealthy people representing ethnic minorities

 

C) older and wealthy Caucasians

 

D) younger Caucasians

 

62) In a large city experiencing urban blight, we would be surprised to find:

 

A) a declining tax base

 

B) depreciating real estate

 

C) improving schools

 

D) increasing crime

 

63) The main financial problems for a city experiencing urban blight result from:

 

A) a declining tax base

 

B) increasing industrial growth

 

C) the need to build new schools

 

D) increasing use of public transportation

 

64) Buses and cars using fuel cells are:

 

A) not yet possible because the technology to safely store hydrogen is still not resolved

 

B) not yet available because the fuel cell generates unsafe levels of heat

 

C) still inefficient, largely because the fuel cells are large and heavy

 

D) already in use and ready for commercial production

 

65) Which one of the following produces the least air pollution?

 

A) an automobile burning hydrogen as a fuel

 

B) an automobile running on a hydrogen fuel cell

 

C) a Toyota Prius hybrid vehicle

 

D) a car running on natural gas

 

66) Automobiles with fuel cells can be more flexibly designed because they:

 

A) do not have wheels

 

B) have to be so large that there is extra room for passengers and accessories

 

C) do not have an engine fuel combustion compartment

 

D) do not have to be aerodynamically constructed to get better fuel mileage

 

67) A hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell uses:

 

A) hydrogen and water and generates electricity and oxygen

 

B) hydrogen and oxygen and generates electricity and water

 

C) carbon dioxide and water and generates electricity and hydrogen

 

D) hydrogen and water and generates electricity, oxygen, and carbon dioxide

 

68) The most promising immediate alternative to gasoline fueled vehicles in a time of global

 

climate change and increasing oil imports is powering vehicles using:

 

A) solar power

 

B) hydrogen as a fuel source

 

C) fuel cells using hydrogen

 

D) plug-in hybrid electric vehicles

 

69) Enhanced geothermal systems:

 

A) generate electricity using the heat of the earth to make steam

 

B) are routinely used in China to power automobiles

 

C) use the energy of the sun to boil water and generate electricity

 

D) use gravity to propel large turbines, which generate electricity

 

A home located next to a 5-acre pond (30 feet deep in the center) uses the steady temperature of the deep pond water for heat exchange. A closed system of water is piped from the home under­ground to deep regions of the pond and then back to the home. Inside the home, a heat exchange system extracts heat in the winter and removes heat from the home in the summer. This home relies completely on electricity, generated by burning coal at a distant power plant.

 

70) This home system illustrates the use of:

 

A) ecothermal energy

 

B) biomass fuels

 

C) geothermal energy

 

D) hydroelectric energy

 

71) Compared to heating and cooling this home using a standard heat pump system, this home’s

 

heating and cooling system will:

 

A) probably keep the pond from freezing over in the winter

 

B) probably cause ice to form on the pond in the early summer and fall

 

C) reduce the carbon footprint of the homeowners

 

D) not work if ice forms on the top of the pond

 

72) Harnessing the energy of tides to generate electricity is different than the force moving the

 

water in a hydroelectric power station at a dam because:

 

A) tidal energy uses turbines and a dam uses generators

 

B) tidal energy ultimately relies on moon’s gravity and hydroelectric power ultimately relies on the energy from the sun

 

C) tidal energy ultimately relies on ocean currents and hydroelectric power ultimately relies on the energy from the sun

 

D) tidal energy ultimately relies on the wind and hydroelectric power ultimately relies on the energy of rain

 

73) A tidal barrage would be used to generate electricity:

 

A) at the mouth of a bay

 

B) at the bottom of a large lake

 

C) near the tip of an ocean peninsula

 

D) in the open ocean

 

74) One of the least promising non-fossil fuel energy sources uses:

 

A) wind power

 

B) biomass energy

 

C) geothermal energy

 

D) thermal-energy conversion in the oceans

 

75) The future global energy demands may be met by developing sustainable energy resources and

 

also, most easily, by:

 

A) dramatically increasing oil and natural gas exploration

 

B) increasing our use of the abundant natural gas and coal resources

 

C) improving energy conservation and efficiency of current technology

 

D) limiting the use of energy in developing countries

 

76) In the past decade, the United States government has:

 

A) discouraged the use of alternate energy resources and promoted the use of fossil fuels

 

B) promoted but not invested in the development and use of sustainable energy resources

 

C) promoted and invested heavily through the Recovery Act of 2009 in the development

 

and use of sustainable energy resources

 

D) required the use of sustainable energy resources for more than 95% of our energy

 

demands by the year 2020

 

77) Responsible stewardship in the coming decades will require global energy policies that

 

promote:

 

A) both sustainability and technological efficiency

 

B) productivity and economic prosperity in developing nations

 

C) the development of abundant and inexpensive fossil fuels such as shale gas

 

D) additional exploration of shale oil and natural gas resources

 

78) Energy policies that promote the use of renewable-energy resources:

 

A) and oil and gas exploration are the most promising ways to address global climate

 

change

 

B) and efficiency will automatically reduce the generation of greenhouse gases

 

C) increase the demand for fossil fuels and require the importation of oil to most

 

countries

 

D) hurt the poorest families and discourage economic growth in developing countries

 

79) If some current trends and energy strategies continue and succeed over the next few decades,

 

in fifty years you might be able to say that you witnessed the shift from:

 

A) an energy-consuming economy to an energy-producing economy

 

B) a wind-driven economy to a solar economy

 

C) an unsustainable fossil-fuel-driven economy to a sustainable hydrogen economy

 

D) a renewable energy- driven economy to a clean-burning natural gas economy.

 

80) Which one of the following vehicles would generate the greatest amount of carbon tax?

 

A) a large hybrid-electric SUV that gets 31 miles per gallon

 

B) a small gas-powered car that gets 27 miles per gallon

 

C) an all-electric car that charges its batteries using solar power-generated electricity

 

D) a car powered by natural gas that gets 33 miles per gallon

 

81) The general U.S. government response to possible terrorism at nuclear power plants since

 

2001 has been:

 

A) limited to a few unenforced regulations

 

B) to convert nuclear facilities to military installations with state of the art security

 

C) enhanced security at plants and at spent fuel storage pools

 

D) nothing, because of budget cuts brought about by the 2008 recession

 

82) Security of nuclear resources and the safe storage of nuclear wastes:

 

A) remain a global challenge

 

B) have been improved by concentrating these in four secure locations throughout the

 

world

 

C) have now been addressed by UN task forces who guard resources that are subject to

 

terrorist attacks

 

D) remain a problem only outside of the United States and Canada

 

83) The more than 100 nuclear power plants planned 30-40 years ago were never built in large

 

part due to:

 

A) increasing incidents of terrorism directed against nuclear plants

 

B) decreased demand for electricity and increased costs of safety features in construction

 

C) pressing demand for electricity, which required simpler coal-fired power plants that

 

could be built faster

 

D) budget constraints stemming from the 2008 recession

 

84) The longevity of nuclear power plants has averaged about:

 

A) 20-25 years due to unexpectedly high levels of corrosion and embrittlement

 

B) 40-50 years, longer than imagined, because neutrons tend to stabilize the building

 

materials

 

C) 10 years, only about 25% of their expected life, due to the need for new

 

government-mandated safety designs

 

D) 40 years, as expected, due to routine maintenance and the replacement with new longer-lasting materials

 

85) Unlike corrosion, embrittlement results in the degradation of nuclear power plant materials

 

from the:

 

A) buildup up iron oxide after prolonged exposure to water

 

B) rapid expansion and contraction of super-heated and ice-cold water through most of

 

the pipes

 

C) use of highly corrosive saltwater throughout most of the water pipes

 

D) bombardment of materials by neutrons produced by fission

 

86) Nuclear power plants are especially expensive because they:

 

A) require the highest levels of security

 

B) usually cost as much to decommission as they did to build

 

C) have so many parts that must be coated in gold

 

D) are constructed of many thick layers of concrete
87) In the United States and many countries in Europe, there is renewed interest in nuclear power

 

plants because of:

 

A) a worldwide shortage of coal

 

B) the spotty availability of natural gas

 

C) concern about global climate change

 

D) the greatly reduced costs associated with generating electricity using nuclear power

 

88) In the near future, the number of nuclear power plants in the United States and throughout

 

the world will most likely:

 

A) decline

 

B) hold steady

 

C) increase

 

D) depend upon the price of oil

 

89) In Japan today, the greatest risk associated with the use of nuclear power is:

 

A) an earthquake and/or tsunami

 

B) a terrorist attack

 

C) the lack of sufficient nuclear fuel

 

D) the generation of mutations in nearby plants and animals

 

90) Compared to standard fission reactors, fast-neutron reactors are:

 

A) less expensive to build

 

B) less expensive to operate

 

C) more efficient in fuel use

 

D) safer, requiring less security

 

91) A much greater use of breeder or fast-neutron reactors would pose a greater safety risk

 

because fast-neutron reactors would generate greater amounts of:

 

A) heavy water, which can easily leak out into the local community near nuclear power plants

 

B) radon gas, which over many years can greatly increase the risk of cancer in the region surrounding a nuclear plant

 

C) plutonium, which is more easily used to construct nuclear weapons

 

D) lead, which is widely used in the creation of bullets and other ammunitions

 

92) Breeder or fast-neutron reactors generate more fuel than they use because:

 

A) these reactors capture the energy of extra neutrons released by 235U fissions

 

B) the Second Law of Thermodynamics does not apply to nuclear reactions

 

C) of solar collectors that invest the energy of the sun into new fuel

 

D) the heat that is usually released in standard reactors is mostly recaptured

 

93) Reprocessing of nuclear fuel:

 

A) requires the heavy use of lead and iron ore

 

B) eliminates the need for nuclear power plants

 

C) requires additional mining of uranium

 

D) reduces and reuses the stockpile of nuclear waste

 

94) The energy released from the sun and other stars comes from the:

 

A) fusion of helium into hydrogen

 

B) fusion of hydrogen into helium

 

C) fission of helium into hydrogen

 

D) fission of hydrogen into helium

 

95) Today, we are able to use nuclear fusion to:

 

A) power a hydrogen bomb

 

B) generate electricity efficiently

 

C) produce hydrogen for fuel cell cars

 

D) power jets and ships

 

96) Nuclear fusion reactions:

 

A) were used in the atomic bombs dropped on Japan in 1945

 

B) require conditions that are not yet cost-efficient for the generation of electricity

 

C) are widely used today in nuclear power plants

 

D) can only occur in the special conditions of the sun and stars

 

97) Over the past 50 years, interest in nuclear power:

 

A) rose, decreased, and now is increasing again

 

B) decreased, rose, and now is decreasing again

 

C) has remained high around the world

 

D) was high but then declined and continues to decline worldwide

 

98) Which of the following is a clear advantage in the use of nuclear power instead of fossil fuels?

 

A) Nuclear plants are cheaper to build than power plants that burn fossil fuels.

 

B) Nuclear power can be used today to power most forms of public transportation.

 

C) Nuclear power contributes less to global climate change.

 

D) Nuclear power generates fewer wastes with lower health risks.

 

99) Much of the recent increased interest in nuclear power is related to:

 

A) the limited supply of coal to generate electricity

 

B) the limited supply of natural gas to generate electricity

 

C) increasing costs of oil and gasoline

 

D) concerns about global climate change

 

100) Good stewardship of nuclear power is best promoted by:

 

A) government oversight and international cooperation

 

B) independent decisions of the countries of the world

 

C) oversight provided by the companies that own the facilities

 

D) limiting regulations and requirements

Intro Geology 4.11 Plate Tectonics

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Introductory GeoloGy Plate tectonIcs

4.11 sTudenT resPonses The following is a summary of the questions in this lab for ease in submitting

answers online.

1. Brazil (Latitude and Longitude)

2. Angola (Latitude and Longitude)

3. Measure in centimeters the distance (Map Length) between the two points you recorded in the previous question. Given that this portion of Pangaea broke apart 200,000,000 years ago, calculate how fast South America and Africa are separating in cm/year? (Hint: Speed= Distance/Time)

4. When will the next supercontinent form? Examine the Western Coast of South America, the Eastern Coast of Asia, and the Pacific Ocean. If South America and Africa are separating and the Atlantic Ocean is growing, then the opposite must be occurring on the other side of the earth (the Americas are getting closer to Asia and the Pacific Ocean is shrinking). How far apart are North America and Mainland Asia in cm? (measure the distance across the Pacific at 40 degrees north latitude- basically measure between Northern California and North Korea)? Take that distance and divide it by the speed you calculated in question 3 to estimate when the next supercontinent will form. Show your work!

5. How far have the snake fossils moved apart since they were originally deposited?

a. 1250 miles b. 1700 miles c. 2150 miles d. 2700 miles

 

 

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Introductory GeoloGy Plate tectonIcs

6. Given that this portion of the Australian plate moves at a speed of 2.2 inches per year, how old are the snake fossils?

a. 310 million years old b. 217 million years old

c. 98 million years old d. 62 million years old

e. 34 million years old

7. There are fossils such as Glossopteris and Lystrosaurus that are found in rocks in South America and Africa that indicate they were part of Pangaea approximately 200 million years ago. These same fossils can be found in Australia, which indicates it, along with Antarctica, was also part of Pangaea at that time. Based on your answer to question 6 which of the following statements about the break-up of Pangaea is TRUE?

a. Australia and Antarctica separated before the break-up of Pangaea.

b. Australia and Antarctica separated during the break-up of Pangaea.

c. Australia and Antarctica separated after the break-up of Pangaea.

8. Consider the ages and positions of the islands listed above along with what you know about plate tectonics and hotspots. In what general direction is the Pacific Plate moving?

a. Northwest b. Southeast c. Northeast d. Southwest

9. How fast was the Pacific plate moving during the last 1.1 million years between the formation of the Big Island and Maui in cm/year? To calculate this divide the distance (in centimeters) between the two islands by the difference in their ages.

10. How fast was the Pacific plate moving from 7.2 million years ago to 4.7 million years ago between the formation of Kauai and Nihoa in cm/year? To calculate this divide the distance (in centimeters) between the two islands by the difference in their ages.

 

 

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Introductory GeoloGy Plate tectonIcs

11. Examine the headings of the measurements that you took for the previous two questions. The headings indicate the direction the Pacific Plate is moving over the hot spot. How does the direction of motion of the Pacific Plate during the last 1.1 million years differ from direction of movement between 4.7 and 7.2 million years ago? The direction of plate movement in the last 1.1 million years________.

a. shows no change b. has become more southerly c. has become more northerly

12. Zoom out and examine the dozens of sunken volcanoes out past Nihoa, named the Emperor Seamounts. As one of these volcanic islands on the Pacific Plate moves off the hotspot it becomes inactive, or extinct, and the island begins to sink as it and the surrounding tectonic plate cool down. The speed the islands are sinking can be estimated by measuring the difference in elevation between two islands and dividing by the difference in their ages (this method assumes the islands were a similar size when they were active). Calculate how fast the Hawaiian Islands are sinking, by using the ages and elevations of Maui and Nihoa.

13. Using the speed you calculated in the previous question (and ignoring possible changes in sea level), when will the Big Island of Hawaii sink below the surface of the ocean? Divide the current maximum elevation of the Big Island by the rate you calculated in the previous question.

14. Now zoom out to ~4000 miles eye altitude and look at the chain of Hawaiian Islands again. Notice the chain continues for thousands of miles up to Aleutian Islands (between Alaska and Siberia). Examine the northernmost sunken volcano (50 49 16.99N 167 16 36.12E) in this chain. Where was that volcano located when it was still active, erupting, and above the surface of the ocean?

a. 50 49 16.99N 167 16 36.12E b 52 31 48.72N 166 25 43.14W

c. 27 45 49.27N 177 10 08.75W d. 19 28 15.23N 155 19 14.43W

15. The rock that most closely resembles the composition of continental crust based on the description in the previous section is:

a. A b. B c. C d. D

 

 

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Introductory GeoloGy Plate tectonIcs

16. Based on the choice you made for question 15, what is the density of the rocks that make up continental crust? Please give your answer in grams/milliliter.

17. The rock that most closely resembles the composition of oceanic crust based on the description in the previous section is:

a. A b. B c. C d. D

18. Based on the choice you made for question 17, what is the density of the rocks that make up oceanic crust? Please give your answer in grams/milliliter.

19. Remember, because of isostasy the denser plate will be lower than the less dense plate. If oceanic and continental crust collided, based on their densities the __________ crust would sink below the ________crust.

a. continental; oceanic b. oceanic; continental

20. According to the geothermal gradient, rocks buried 75 km beneath the surface would normally be at what temperature?

At 75 km depth, rocks will be heated to about _______ degrees Celsius.

a. 1500 b. 1250 c. 1000 d. 750

21. According to the geothermal gradient, rocks at 500 degrees Celsius will be buried how deep?

At 500 degrees Celsius, rocks will be buried to about _______ km depth.

a. 8 b. 12.5 c. 20 d. 27

22. What is the physical state of a dry mantle rock at point X?

a. Completely melted b. Starting to melt c. Completely solid

23. What happens when the lithosphere at point X is heated to 1500 °C?

a. No change b. Starts to crystallize c. Starts to melt

 

 

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Introductory GeoloGy Plate tectonIcs

24. At what depth will the dry mantle rock at point X begin to melt if it is uplifted closer to Earth’s surface and its temperature remains the same?

a. 35 km b. 25 km c. 18 km d. 12 km

25. What would happen to the mantle rock at point X if water is added to it?

a. No change b. Starts to crystallize c. Starts to melt

26. Which of the following places represent a Wadati-Benioff zone?

a. 10°S, 110°W b. 0°, 0° c. 15°S, 180° d. 30°N, 75°E

27. The Wadati-Benioff zone is associated with which type of plate boundary?

a. Divergent b. Convergent (Continent-Continent)

c. Convergent (Continent-Ocean or Ocean-Ocean) d. Transform

28. Examine the path of the river that feeds into and flows out of Quail Lake. What direction is the North American plate moving in comparison to the Pacific Plate at this location?

a. East b. West

29. Given that San Francisco is located on the North American Plate and Los Angles is located on the Pacific Plate, are these two cities getting closer together or farther apart over time?

a. Closer b. Farther

30. Type “15 19 48.78 S 75 12 03.41 W” into the Google Earth Search bar. What type of tectonic plates are present?

a. Ocean- Ocean b. Ocean- Continent c. Continent- Continent

31. What type of plate tectonic boundary is present?

a. Transform b. Convergent c. Divergent

32. Type “6 21 49.68 S 29 35 37.87 E” into the Google Earth Search bar. What type of process is going on at this location?

a. Seafloor spreading b. Continental rifting c. Subduction

 

 

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Introductory GeoloGy Plate tectonIcs

33. What features would you expect to occur at this type of boundary?

a. Earthquakes and a trench b. Volcanoes and a valley

c. Mountains and landslides d. Earthquakes and offset rivers

34. Type “28 04 27.04N 86 55 26.84E” into the Google Earth Search bar. What type of tectonic plates are present?

a. Ocean- Ocean b. Ocean- Continent c. Continent- Continent

35. What type of plate tectonic boundary is present?

a. Transform b. Convergent c. Divergent

36. Type “46 55 25.66 N 152 01 25.17 E” into the Google Earth Search bar. What type of tectonic plates are present? Make sure to zoom out to get a good view of the relevant features.

a. Ocean- Ocean b. Ocean- Continent c. Continent- Continent

37. What features would you expect to occur at this type of boundary?

a. Volcanos, earthquakes and a trench b. Volcanoes and a linear valley

c. Mountains and landslides d. Earthquakes and offset rivers

38. Type “43 41 07.81 N 128 16 56.29 W” into the Google Earth Search bar. What type of tectonic plates are present? Hint- make sure to re-read the section on plate boundaries before answering!

a. Ocean- Ocean b. Ocean- Continent c. Continent- Continent

39. What type of plate tectonic boundary is at this exact location?

a. Transform b. Convergent c. Divergent

40. This plate boundary isn’t as simple as the previous examples, meaning another nearby plate boundary directly influences it. Zoom out and examine the area, what other type of boundary is nearby?

a. Transform b. Convergent c. Divergent

 

 

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Introductory GeoloGy Plate tectonIcs

41. Go back to the location in Google Earth that you examined for question 36 (46 55 25.66 N 152 01 25.17 E). Which of the three proposed plate tectonic mechanisms would NOT occur at this location?

a. Slab pull b. Ridge push c. Slab suction