what are some appropriate ways to use scripture in counseling?

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  1. Some beginning Christian counselors may be tempted to quote a quick verse, or give an easy biblical solution without delving into deeper issues in the life of the client. What caution about using the Bible in counseling might that illustrate?
  2. The lectures discussed using the METAMORPH grid by filling in the biblical references and spiritual formation columns. What is the purpose behind doing that?
  3. Although the lectures emphasized the importance of inside-out change, the lectures also explained the value of outside-in change. What is the function of dislocating experiences in the context of outside-in change?
  4. Based on the week five lecture, what are some appropriate ways to use scripture in counseling?
  5. The lectures talk about the “level of risk” that different forms of prayer during counseling take. What is true from that discussion?
  6. The lectures talked about several ways that Scripture could be used in counseling. Which of the following are legitimate ways to use Scripture with our clients?
  7. The lectures talked about specific strategies for using the Bible in counseling. Which of the following would NOT be endorsed based on the lecture discussion
  8. Healing prayer can best be described as:
  9. The week five lecture talked about “depreciative desires” as a hindrance to reading Scripture for spiritual formation. What would be an example of thathindrance in the life of a client?
  10. Which answer below best describes the statement: “We can always count on God’s Word, but we must be careful of our interpretations and applications,” — from the Five Potential Problems When Using the Bible in Christian Counseling lecture?
  11. The lecture defines the “Trinitarian Relationship in Counseling” as:
  12. In our Christian counseling, if we want to help our client read the Bible for spiritual formation, what is true?
  13. As a Christian counselor, I can use the Bible in an anthropological way. What would be an example of that in counseling?
  14. According to the lectures, a guiding principle for using scripture in counseling is
  15. The lecture discussed the value of, and some principles for using meditation in Christian counseling. Which of the following statements best corresponds with the lecture content?
  16. If we want our clients to “set the stage” for formative reading of Scripture, what should we encourage them to do?
  17. In the lecture discussion on potential problems when using the Bible in counseling, the lecturer referred to “relying excessively on the Bible when other strategies might be more helpful to the client at that moment.” What “trap” may that quote illustrate?
  18. The lectures explain that comments by the lecturer about Christian counseling are in the “soul care” tradition, and as such, spiritual formation is emphasized. Which answer below would NOT be true of Formative Reading of the Bible, as discussed in the lecture?
  19. In the context of the discussion on inside/out, outside/in change, the lecture used the term “condemnation engineering” as an example of a mechanism of outside-in change. What is an example of that mechanism?
  20. Similar to our consideration of using Scripture in Christian counseling, since prayer is a godly endeavor, we should always open up our counseling sessions with a spoken prayer.
  21. A basic principle of prayer is that when we get closer to God, we also get closer to people as well.
  22. Prayer helps us to get beyond the illusion that we are self-sufficient to move us to the reality that we are dependent on God.
  23. According to the lecture, helping a client change his/her behavior is never beneficial in producing true inner change.
  24. With regard to prayer and Christian counseling, the lecture refocused the question  away from whether prayer should be a part of counseling, to a focus on what types of prayer minister best to our clients.
  25. Counseling, like medicine, begins with accurate assessment.
  26. The most prevalent and studied addictions are:
  27. _________________ is a vital trait for Christian counselors.

PRACTICE CALCULATIONS 2020

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PRACTICE CALCULATIONS 2020

1.

A client with cardiogenic shock weighs 220 lb. and is receiving dopamine at the rate of 3 mcg/kg/minute. The solution strength available is dopamine 400 mg in 250 ml of D5W. The nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

First, convert pounds to kg, 220 lb : X = 2.2 lb : 1 kg = 100 kg. Next, calculate the dosage per minute, 3 mcg/kg/min x 100 kg = 300 mcg/min. Convert mcg/min to mcg/hour, 300 mcg/min x 60 min=18,000 mcg/hour. Convert mcg/hr to mg/hour, 18,000 mcg/hr = 18.0 mg/hour. Calculate the rate, 400 mg : 250 ml = 18 mg : X ml 400X = 4500 X = 11.25 = 11.3 ml. So, 18 mg/11.3 ml should be infused at 11.3 ml/hour

2.              A client with hypertension who weighs 72.4 kg is receiving an infusion of nitroprusside (Nipride) 50 mg in D5W 250 ml at 75 ml/hour. How many mcg/kg/minute is the client receiving? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the

nearest tenth.)

Calculate the mg/hour infusing, 50 mg : 250 ml = X : 75 ml 250X = 3750 and X = 15 mg/hour. Next, convert mg/hr to mcg/hour, 15 mg/hour = 1 mg / 1000 mcg = 15,000 mcg/hour, then divide by 60 min = 250 mcg/minute. Lastly, 250 mcg/72.4 kg/min = 3.45 = 3.5 mcg/kg/minute

3.

A client who weighs 70 kg is receiving a dopamine solution of 800 mg/500 ml normal saline at 5 ml/hour. How many mcg/kg/minute is the client receiving? (Enter the numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

To change ml/hour to mcg/kg/minute, use the formula: desired rate (5 ml/hour) / volume available (500 ml) x dose available (800 mg) = 8 mg/hour. Next, convert milligrams/hour to mcg/kg/minute: mg (8) x 1000 / kg (70) / 60 minutes = 1.904 = 1.9 mcg/kg/minute

4.

A client is receiving an IV solution of sodium chloride 0.9% (Normal Saline) 250 ml with amiodarone (Cordarone) 1 gram at 17 ml/hour. How many mg/minute of amiodarone is infusing? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

Convert grams to mg, 1 gram equals 1,000 mg. Using ratio and proportion – 1,000 mg : 250 ml :: X mg : 1ml 250X= 1,000 so X = 4 mg/ml is the solution concentration of amiodarone. The infusion rate (ml/hour) x concentration (mg/ml) divided by 60 minutes/hour 17 ml/hour x 4 mg/ml = 68/60 = 1.13 = 1.1 mg/minute

5.

A client who weighs 176 pounds is receiving an IV infusion with esmolol hydrochloride (Brevibloc) at 48 ml/hour. The IV solution is labeled with the concentration of Brevibloc 10 mg/ml. How many mcg/kg/minute is the client receiving?

Convert pounds to kg by dividing 176 pounds by 2.2 pounds = 80 kg. Convert the IV concentration from mg to mcg. 1 mg : 1000 mcg :: 10 mg : 10,000 mcg. Infusion rate (48 ml/hour) x concentration (10,000 mcg/ml) divided by 60 minutes/hour x 80 kg = 48 x 10,000 divided by 60 x 80 = 480,000 / 4800 = 100 mcg/kg/minute

6.

The nurse is preparing the change-of-shift report for a client who has a 265 ml secondary infusion that was started 2 hours ago at a rate of 85 ml/hour via an infusion pump. The nurse should report that how many ml remain to be infused by the hernia nurse

85 ml x 2 hours = 170 ml has infused. 265 ml (total amount to be infused) – 170 ml (amount infused) = 95 ml remain to be infused

7.

A male client receives a prescription for ondansetron hydrochloride (Zofran) 4 mg IV to prevent postoperative nausea after an inguinal hernia repair. The medication is available in 2 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Use ratio and proportion, 4 mg : X ml = 2 mg : 1 ml 2X = 4 X = 2

8.

The nurse is preparing to administer Hepatitis B Vaccine, Recombinant (Energix-B) 5 mcg IM to a school-aged child. The vaccine is labeled, 10 mcg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Use ratio and proportion, 5 mcg : X ml :: 10 mcg : 1ml 10X = 5 X = 0.5 ml

9.

A client’s daily PO prescription for aripiprazole (Ability) is increased from 15 mg to 30 mg. The medication is available in 15 mg tablets, and the client already received one tablet today. How many additional tablets should the nurse administer so the client receives the total newly prescribed dose for the day?

30 mg (total dose) – 15 mg (dose already administered) = 15 mg that still needs to be administered. Using the Desired/Have formula: 15 mg/15 mg = 1 tablet

10.

The nurse is administering a 250 milliliter (ml) intravenous solution to be infused over 2 hours. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the…

ATI Maternal newborn 2019

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ATI Maternal newborn 2019

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a forceps assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?

A. Hypoglycemia

B. Polycythemia

C. Facial Palsy

D. Bronchopumonary dysplasia

2. A nurse is providing teaching about terbutaline to a client who is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following statement by client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

“The medication could cause me to experience heart paptation”

“This medication could cause me to experience blurred vision”

“This medication could cause me to experience ringing in my ears”

“This medication could cause me to experience frequent …”

3

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

Urine Ketones

Rapid plasma regain

Prothrombin time

Urine culture

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and requests nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following nursing actions promotes client comfort?

A. Assisting the client into squatting position

B. Having the client lie in a supine position

C. Applying fundal pressure during contractions

D. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hr

6. A nurse caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge

B. Urinary Frequency

C. Vulva Lesions

D. Malodorous Discharge

7. A nurse is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which the following locations should the nurse place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?

A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis

B. Left Upper Abdomen

C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus

D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process

8.A nurse is assessing a client who is at 27 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A. Urine protein concentration 200 mg/ 24 hr

B. Creatnine 0.8 mg/ dL

C. Hemoglobin 14.8 g/ dL

D. Platelet Count 60.000/ mm3

9. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effect should the nurse include?

A. Tinnitus

B. Urinary Frequency

C. Breast Tenderness

D. Chills

10. A nurse is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the nurse expect?

A. Bulging Fontanels

B. Nasal Flaring

C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)

D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference

11. A nurse is planning care for a newborn who has neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care.

A. Increase the newborn’s visual stimulation

B. Weigh the newborn every other day

C. Discourage parental interaction until after a social evaluation

D. Swaddle the newborn in a flexed position

12. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 6 hr old and has a bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/ dL. The newborn’s mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Obtain a blood sample for a serum glucose level

B. Feed the newborn immediately

C. Administer 50 mL of dextrose solution IV

D. Reassess the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding

13. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about exercise safety during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply).

A. “I will limit my time in the hot tub to 30 minutes after exercise.”

B. “I should consume three 8-ounce glasses of water after I exercise.”

C. “I will check my heart rate every 15 minutes during exercise sessions.”

D. “I should limit exercise sessions to 30 minutes when the weather is humid.”

E. “I should rest by lying on my side for 10 minutes following exercise.”

14. A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?

A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds

B. Contraction frequency of 2 to 3 min apart

C. Absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate

D. Fetal heart rate is 140/min

15. A nurse in a woman’s health clinic is obtaining a health history from a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as increasing the client’s risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A. Recurrent Cystitis

B. Frequent Alcohol Use

C. Use of Oral Contraceptives

D. Chlamydia Infection

16. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about immunizations that newborns receive following birth. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Hepatitis B

B. Rotavirus

C. Pneumococcal

D. Varicella

17. A nurse is providing nutritional guidance to a client who is pregnant and follows a vegan diet. The client asks the nurse which foods she should eat to ensure adequate calcium intake. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following foods has the highest amount of calcium?

A. ½ cup cubed avocado

B. 1 large banana

C. 1 medium potato

D. 1 cup cooked broccoli

18. A nurse in a provider’s office is assessing a client at her first antepartum visit. The client states that the first day of her last menstrual period was March 8. Use Nagele’s rule to calculate the estimated date of delivery. (Use the MMDD format with four numerals and no spaces or punctuation.)

19. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

A. The client expels the placenta

B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix

C. The client begins have regular contractions.

D. The client delivers the newborn

20. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statement by the client requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

A. “It burns when I urinate

B. “My feet are really swollen today”.

C. “I didn’t have lunch today, but I have breakfast this morning”.

21. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a new parent about car seat safety. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A. “I should position my baby’s car seat at a 45 degree angle in the car.”

B. “I should place the car seat rear facing until my baby is 12 months old.”

C. “I should place the harness snugly in a slot above my baby’s sholders.”

D. “I should position the retainer clip at the top of my baby’s abdomen.”

22. A nurse is developing an educational program about hermolytic diseases in newborns for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following genetic information should the nurse include in the program as a cause of hermolytic disease?

A. The mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative

B. The mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive

C. The mother and the father are both Rh positive

D. The mother and the father are both Rh negative

23. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%

B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/ dL

C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L

D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%

E. “I have been seeing spot this morning”

24. A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the nurse intervene?

a. Molding

b. Vernix Caseosa

c.Acrocyanosis

d.Sternal retractions

25. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?

A client who has a urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hr

A client who reports abdominal cramping during breastfeeding

A client who is receiving magnesium sulfate and has absent deep tendon reflexes

A client who reports lochia rubra requiring changing perineal pads every 3 hr

26. A nurse is caring for a client who has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Metronidazole

Penicillin

Acyclovir

Gentamicin

27. A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following complications?

Hyperemesis

Proteinuria

Hypoxia

Hemorrhage

28. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 min.

Maintain the client in a supine position.

Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min.

Limit IV intake to 4 L per 24 hr.

29. A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old newborn who was born at 35 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse the nurse takes? (Click on the “Exhibit” Button for additional information about the newborn. There are three tabs that contain separate categories of date.)

Administer nitric oxide inhalation therapy to the newborn

Insert an orogastric decompression tube with low wall suction.

Provide the newborn with an iron-rich formula containing vitamin B12 every 2 hr.

Measure the aadbominal circumference at the level of the newborn’s umbilicus every 2 hr.

30. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin for induction of labor and notes late decelerations of the fetal heart rate on the monitor Tracing. Which of the following action should the nurse take?

Decrease maintenance IV solution infusion rate.

Place the client in lateral position.

Administer misoprostol 25 mcg vaginally

Administer oxygen via face mask at 2 L/min

31. A nurse is planning care for a client who is pregnant and has HIV. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Instruct the client to stop taking the antiretroviral medication at 32 weeks of gestation.

Use a fetal scalp electrode during labor and delivery.

Administer a pneumococcal immunization to the newborn within 4 hr following birth.

Bathe the newborn before initiating skin-to-skin contact

32. A nurse is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg

Urine output 100 mL in hr

Pulse 58/min

Respiratory rate 14/min

33. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for client who is pregnant. The Nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase?

RBC count

Bilirubin

Fasting blood glucose

Bun

34. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg IM 12 hr. Available in dexamethasome 10 mg/mL. How mane mL of dexamethasome should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use trailing zero.)

mL.

35. A nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate during the prenatal visit?

A. A client who has an ultrasound that confirms a molar pregnancy

B. A client who has a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation

C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses

D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

36. A nurse is planning care for a full-term newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A. Dress the newborn in lightweight clothing.

B. Avoid using lotion or ointment on the newborn skin.

C. Keep the newborn supine throughout treatment

D. Measure the newborn’s temperature every 8hr

37. A nurse is receiving laboratory results for a term newborn who is 24 hr old. Which of the following results require intervention by the nurse?

A. WBC count 10,000/mm3

B. Platelets 180,000/mm3

C. Hemoglobin 20g/dL

D. Glucose 20 mg/dL

38. A nurse is assessing a client following an amniocentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as complications? ( select all that apply).

A. Amnionitis

B. Urinary tract infection

C. Polyhydramnios

D. Leakage of amniotic fluid

E. Preterm labor

39. A nurse on a labor and delivery unit is receiving infection control standards with a newly licensed nurse. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to don gloves for which of the following procedures?

A. Assisting a mother with breastfeeding

B. Performing a newborn’s initial bath

C. Administering the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine

D. Performing umbilical cord care

40. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself at home during the last 2months of pregnancy . This of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching.

A. “I will count baby’s lacks every other day.

B. “I will alternate the arm use to check my blood pressure.

D. I will consume 50 grams of protein daily

41. A nurse is caring for four newborns. Which of the following newborns should the nurse assess first?

A. newborn who has nasal flaring

B. newborn who has subconjunctival hemorrhage of the left ey

C. A newborn who has overlapping suture lines

D. A newborn who has not rust-stained urine

42. A nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client. The nurse should identify that which of the following factors paces the client at risk for infection.

A. Meconium – start fluid

B. placenta previa

C. Midline episiotomy

D. Gestational hypertension

43. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4hr postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Administer indomethacin

B. Insert a second using a 22 gauge IV catheter,

C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

D. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.

44. A nurse is teaching a client who is 28 weeks of gestation and not up-to date on current immunization. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse inform the client to anticipate receiving following birth.

A. Pneumococcal

B. Hepatitis

C. Human papillomavirus

D. Rubella

45. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 24 hr old. Which of the following Laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A. Hgb 20 g/dL

B. Bilirubin 2mg/dL

C. Platelets 200 .000/mm3

WBC count 32.000/mm3

46. A nurse is caring for newborn who is 1 hr old and has a respiratory rate of 50/min, a heart rate of 130/min, and an auxiliary temperature of 36.1*C (97F). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Give the newborn a warm bath.

B. Apply a cap to the newborn head.

C. Reposition the newborn.

D. Obtain an oxygen saturation level

47. A nurse is planning care for a newborn who is scheduled to start phototherapy using a lamp. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?

A. Apply a thin layer of lotion to the newborn skin every 8 hrs.

B. Give the newborn 1oz of glucose water every 4 hrs

C. Ensure the newborn eyes are closed beneath the shield.

D. Dress the newborn in a thin layer of clothing during therapy

48. A nurse is caring for a client following a vaginal delivery of a term fetal demise. Which of the following statement should the nurse make?

A. “You can bathe and dress your baby if you’d like to.”

B. “If you don’t hold the baby it will make letting go much harder.”

C. “You should name the baby so she can have an identity.”

D. “I’m sure you will be able to have another baby when you’re ready.”

49. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a prescription to receive misoprostol intravaginally. Which of the following statement should the nurse make?

A. “you will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose.”

B. “You will receive an IV infusion of oxytocin 1 hour after your last dose.”

C.” You will receive a magnesium supplement immediately following therapy.”

D.” You will need to have a full bladder before the therapy begins.”

50. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born Postterm. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Nails extending over tips of fingers

B. Large deposits of subcutaneous fat

C. Pale, translucent skin

D. Thin covering of fine hair on shoulders and back

51. A nurse is planning to teach a group of clients who are about breastfeeding after returning to work .Which of the following infection should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. “Thawed breast milk can be refrigerated for up to 72 hours.”

B. “Breast milk can be stored in a deep freezer for 12 months.”

C. Breast milk can be stored at room temperature for up to 12 hours.”

D. “Thawed breast milk that is unused can be refrozen.”

52. A nurse on postpartum unit caring for four clients. Which of the following clients should receive Rh,(D) Immune globulin to prevent Rh- is immunization?

A. An Rh negative mother who has an Rh- positive infant

B. An Rh –positive mother who has an Rh- negative infant

C. An Rh-positive mother who has an Rh- positive infant

D. An Rh- negative mother who has an Rh- negative infant

53. A nurse is caring for an infant who has signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Provide a stimulating environment

B. Monitor blood glucose level every hr.

C. Intiate seizure precautions.

D. Place the infants on his back with legs extended.

54. A nurse is reviewing signs of effective breathing with a client who is 5 days postpartum. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. “You should feel a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking.

B. You should expect your baby to have two to three wet diapers in 24hour period

C. “Your baby’s urine should appear dark and concentrated”.

D. “Your breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds”.

55. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation about a non stress test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. “This test will confirm fetal lung maturity “.

B. “This test will determine adequacy of placental perfusion”.

C. “This test will detect fetal infection”.

D. “This test will predict maternal readiness for labor”.

56. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?

A. A client who has active genital herpes

B. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus

C. A client who has a previous uterine incision

D. A client who has placenta previa

57. A nurse is monitoring a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse reports to the provider?

A. Blood pressure 148/94mm Hg

B. Respiratory rate 14mm

C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr

D. 2+deep tendon reflexes

58. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the transition phase of labor and reports a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Instruct the client to use effleurage

B. Apply counter pressure to the client sacral.

C. Assist the client with patterned-paced breathing.

D. Teach the client the technique of biofeedback.

59. A nurse is caring for newborn immediately following birth and notes a large amount of mucus in the newborn’s mouth and nose. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow when performing suction with a bulb syringe. (Move the streps into the box on the placing them in the selected order of performance. Use all the streps.)

Assess the newborn for reflex bradycardia.

Compress the bulb syringe

Place the bulb syringe in the newborn’s mouth.

Use the bulb syringe to suction the newborn’s nose.

60. A community health nurse is providing education on gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) to a group of clients who are pregnant when discussing risk factors, which of the following ethnicities should the nurse identify as having the lowest incidence of GDM?

A. Asian

B. Non-Hispanic White American

C. Hispanic

D. African American

61. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statement by the client requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

A. “It burns when I urinate

B. “My feet are really swollen today”.

C. “I didn’t have lunch today, but I have breakfast this morning”.

D. “I have been seeing spot this morning”

62. A nurse is providing teaching about expected changes during pregnancy to a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

A. “Your stomach will empty rapidly”

B. “You should expect your uterus to double in size”

C. “You should anticipate nasal stuffiness.”

D. “Your nipples will become lighter in color”.

63. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class regarding false labor. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

A. “your contraction will become more intense when walking”

B. “you will have dilation and effacement of the cervix”

C. You will have bloody show”

D. “Your contraction will become temporally regular”

64. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

A. Hypnosis

B. Polyuria

C. Bilateral crackles

Hyperglycemia

65. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prenatal care and is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plans to conduct?

A. Group B strep culture

B.1-hr glucose tolerance test

c. Rubella titer

D. Blood type and Rh

66. A nurse is caring for a client who has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medication should the nurse expect to administer?

A. Metronidale

B. Fluconazole

C. Acyclovir

67. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing sore nipples from breastfeeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Place a snug dressing on the client’s nipple when not breastfeeding.

B.Eusure the newborn’s mouth is wide open before latching to the breast.

C. Encourage t

D. Instruct the client to begin the feeding with the nipple that is most tender.

68. A nurse is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the nurse expect?

A. Minimal arm recoil

B. Popliteal angle of less than 90

C. Creases over the entire sole

D. Sparse lanugo

69. A nurse on a labor and delivery unit is providing teaching to a client who plans to use hypnosis to control labor pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

A. Focusing on controlling body functions

B. “Synchronized breathing will be required during hypnosis”

C. “Hypnosis can be beneficial in you practiced it during the prenatal period”

D. “Hypnosis does not work for controlling pain associated with labor”.

BUSINESS INTEGRATION AND STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT

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BUSINESS INTEGRATION AND STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT

BUSINESS INTEGRATION AND STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT

1. A firm has many goals and a set of _____ that shape the achievement of the goals.

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2. The difference between goals and objectives is that goals are ____ and objectives are ____.

3. The five stage strategic management process is comprised of mission and vision, objectives, strategy formulation, _____, and _____.

4. Cinnabon and Kopi Luwak are examples of a _____ strategy.

5. Checkers Drive In and Redbox are examples of a _____ strategy.

6. Strategic leadership is about _____ in the process of exploiting opportunities.

7. Ken Olson of DEC failed to _____ the change occurring in the industry, focused too much on engineering precision, and brought about the downfall of the company.

8. Organizational change is any ____ that requires a change in ____ .

9. Strategic leaders can mitigate people-oriented resistance to change by ____.

10. Leaders can mitigate take-oriented resistance to change by aligning _____.

11. Segmentation is the process of dividing a _____ market into _____ clusters, each of which have some common characteristics.

12. Positioning maps show ____ of brands versus competing brands on important buying decisions.

13. Which of the following is most likely to lead to customer loyalty?

Reducing the effort required by customers

14. Service quality is characterized by intangibility, heterogeneity, and _____.

15. Service quality is a comparison between ____ and ____.

16. The three key elements of enterprise performance management are ______, processes, and people.

17. A low performance orientation with low psychological safety leads to _____.

18. A low performance orientation with high psychological safety leads to _____.

Complacency

19. A strategy map outlines the _____ along each of the four dimensions of the balanced scorecard.

20. Supply Chain Management flows are comprised of product or service flows, data and information flows, and ____.

21. The three step continuous improvement methodology is comprised of Assess, ____, and ____.

22. The Japanese Method of continuous improvement is called ____.

23. At the heart of the Six Sigma is the ____ process.

24. DMAIC is an acronym for Define, Measure, Analyze, ____, and _____.

25. The focus of Lean is a bias for ____ while the focus of Six Sigma is a bias for ____.

26. Inbound logistics is sometimes synonymously used with _____.

27. Operations refers to the transformation process of converting ____ into _____.

28. In terms of value chain integration, leadership provides the mission, vision, _____, and _____.

29. In terms of the value chain concept, the ultimate differentiator is ______.

Service

30. Firms following a differentiation strategy need to focus on ______.

Innovation and marketing

31. _____ is a support activity of the value chain.

Procurement

32. While evaluating alternatives, one needs to look at whether the proposed course of action is legal, ethical, ____, and _____.

33. Organizations are generally good at strategy_____ but fail at strategy ____.

Formulation; implementation

34. According to Ansoff, a firm that introduces new products into new markets is engaged in____.

Diversification

35. Suppose INTEL acquires its competitor AMD. This would be an example of _____.

Horizontal integration

36. Return on investment in the realm of quality denotes the ratio of ____ to ____ resulting from the improvement initiatives.

37. The three major perspectives along which segmentation is carried out are demographic, ____ and _____.

38. People resist change due to several factors. One of the factors is the perception that change _____.

39. An adaptive strategic leader combines resoluteness with _____.

Flexibility

40. APPLE having their showrooms and retail outlets with experts to help customers is an example of______.

41. Helpful techniques to define a problem are flow charts to depict the process and ____ to identify the root cause.

42. The ultimate goal of an organization is to _____ and _____ value its customers.

Create; provide

43. ______ and the willingness to share information in time is a critical success factor in business.

44. ______ is a primary activity of the value chain.

45. ______ leadership is about positively impacting others through clear vision, stretch goals, personal example, humility, and intellectual stimulation.

46. The components of the PDCA cycle are ______, ______, _______, and ______.

47. The concepts of supply chain management and ______ go together.

Just in time

48. Givenchy and Rolex are examples of a _______ strategy.

49. Competitive rivalry is high in industries with a ____ number of ______ players.

50. Lean processes focus on ______ and support Six Sigma processes.

51. A performance orientated system embedded in an organizational culture of ______ leads to a learning environment.

52. Quality can be considered to be the ______ at the start of use of a product or service.

53. A copper producing company acquiring copper ore mines to ensure a steady supply of raw materials is pursuing a _____ strategy.

54. By focusing on cost drivers, Activity Based Costing isolates activities that_____.

55. Optimizing an enterprise’s strategic value is dependent on the _____ between various levels and across domains.

56. Strategic leaders challenge the _____.

57. Firms such as eBay and Tophatter offer a ______ value proposition.

58. Performance management provides the ______ and ______ integration of different elements that make up an organization.

59. Who are an organization’s internal customers?

Employees whose work is impacted by or dependent on the work of others in the organization.

60. To be instruments for purposeful change, strategy maps should be part of _____.

61. The Balanced Scorecard Links organizational vision and strategy to financial, internal process, organizational capacity and ______.

62. The firm attempts to achieve its goal through a combination of resources and _____.

63. A compelling unique value or unique selling proposition is the building block of _____.

64. _______ refers to the state of a product or service after an interval of time.

65. The ability to manufacture a small number of units without increasing costs is a feature of _______.

66. Southwest Airlines has consistently followed a ______ strategy.

67. A(n) _______ is a set of integrated parts or processes working towards a common objective.

68. Strategic leaders can prepare people for change through _______.

69. If we remove all technicalities, performance management is all about _____.

70. Today’s competitive environment is characterized by rapid change, _____, and ambiguity.

71. When leaders are unable to achieve competitive advantage through either cost leadership or differentiation, the organization _____.

72. A fearless analysis of organizational failures – What happened? What should have happened? Where did we go wrong? – leads to ______.

73. Abell’s framework provides a valuable understanding of the _____, ______, and _____ of business.

74. Quality reduces waste and network thereby reducing costs. A perception of superior quality allows the firm a _____ price relative to its competitors.