APH1

Assignment: The Ethics and Legalities of Medication Error Disclosure
American writer Nikki Giovanni once said: “Mistakes are a fact of life. It is the response to the error that counts” (Goodreads, 2012). Whenever you make an error when writing a prescription, you must consider the ethical and legal implications of your error—no matter how seemingly insignificant it might be. You may fear the possible consequences and feel pressured not to disclose the error. Regardless, you need to consider the potential implications of non-disclosure. How you respond to the prescription error will affect you, the patient, and the health care facility where you practice. In this Assignment, you examine ethical and legal implications of disclosure and nondisclosure of personal error.
Consider the following scenario:
· You are working as an advanced practice nurse at a community health clinic. You make an error when prescribing a drug to a patient. You do not think the patient would know that you made the error, and it certainly was not intentional.
To prepare:
· Consider the ethical implications of disclosure and nondisclosure.
· Research federal and state laws for advanced practice nurses. Reflect on the legal implications of disclosure and nondisclosure for you and the health clinic.
· Consider what you would do as the advanced practice nurse in this scenario including whether or not you would disclose your error.
· Review the Institute for Safe Medication Practices website in the Learning Resources. Consider the process of writing prescriptions. Think about strategies to avoid medication errors.
By Day 7
Write a 2- to 3- page paper that addresses the following:
· Explain the ethical and legal implications of disclosure and nondisclosure. Be sure to reference laws specific to your state.
· Describe what you would do as the advanced practice nurse in this scenario including whether or not you would disclose your error. Provide your rationale.
· Explain the process of writing prescriptions including strategies to minimize medication errors.
Note:
This assignment is due 03/10/2018 at 1400Hrs please include citations within text and at the end with a reference page.The post APH1 first appeared on Blackboard Masters.

Consider a large clothing shop in sydney. suppose it is known that

Consider a large clothing shop in Sydney. Suppose it is known that the number of business suits sold per day is normally distributed with a mean, μ = 23 and standard deviation, σ = 10.  Mr Wood is employed to sell business suits. The number of business suits he sells each day for 40 days is recorded and the mean number per day calculated.  

What is the probability that Mr Wood’s average daily sales will be less than 19 business suits

Review several of your colleagues’ posts and respond to at least two of your peers by 11:59 p.m. on Day 7 of the week. You are encouraged to post your required replies earlier in the week to promote more meaningful interactive discourse in this discussion. 

Personality Theory at Work in Popular Media

Prior to beginning work on this discussion, please read the required Churchill and Mruk (2014), Hayes (2012), and Waterman (2013) articles, and review the APA’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct  and Chapters 14 through 17 in your textbook.

For this discussion, you will choose a person who has an important presence in popular media today. This person might be a political, business, human rights, education, or entertainment figure. Examine the major theoretical approaches studied in the class so far (psychodynamic, behavioral, learning, trait and type, and humanistic). Briefly describe your chosen figure’s personality from the point of view of each of these five approaches. Evaluate and describe any cultural considerations which may affect the personality assessment within each of the given approaches. Analyze the ethical implications of basing your personality assessment on the information available through the popular media. Select the theoretical approach you think best describes the person and elaborate on his or her personality using this approach.

Guided Response:  Review several of your colleagues’ posts and respond to at least two of your peers by 11:59 p.m. on Day 7 of the week. You are encouraged to post your required replies earlier in the week to promote more meaningful interactive discourse in this discussion.

  • Considering your colleague’s chosen person, was the theoretical approach he or she selected appropriate?
  • Suggest another perspective that might be used to assess this person, and provide a rationale as to why the perspective may be more effective.
  • Consider the ethical implications indicated by your colleague. Review the APA’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct  and describe the issues present in assessing personality using only the information available in popular media.

 

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The post Review several of your colleagues’ posts and respond to at least two of your peers by 11:59 p.m. on Day 7 of the week. You are encouraged to post your required replies earlier in the week to promote more meaningful interactive discourse in this discussion.  appeared first on Coursework Research.

Tests and measurement (psyc – 6315 – 1) final exam

Note: Please refer to the following table to complete question #27.

 

http://nursingessayswriters.com/

 

 

 

QUESTION 1

1.       Which of the following would not be considered an advantage of testing over a clinical or job interview?

[removed]

a.

Test taker can be compared to a known population

[removed]

b.

Ratings will be consistent for different assessors

[removed]

c.

Assessor can get a good sense of the person as a whole

[removed]

d.

Outcomes can be predicted with known levels of accuracy

1 points   

QUESTION 2

1.      The first intelligence test was developed by:

[removed]

a.

Binet

[removed]

b.

Wechsler

[removed]

c.

Wundt

[removed]

d.

Socrates

1 points   

QUESTION 3

1.      Psychological tests are commonly used to assist with decisions regarding:

[removed]

a.

Academic placement

[removed]

b.

Hiring

[removed]

c.

Psychiatric diagnosis

[removed]

d.

All of the above

1 points   

QUESTION 4

1.      Jill correctly answered 40 out of 50 questions on her final exam and received a score of 80%. This is an example of what type of score?

[removed]

a.

Norm-referenced

[removed]

b.

Criterion-referenced

[removed]

c.

Z-score

[removed]

d.

Percentile

1 points   

QUESTION 5

1.      Jose was a straight-A student in high school and he has been accepted to a competitive college. He is having trouble deciding on a major. What type of test is most likely to help him make a decision?

[removed]

a.

An intelligence test, such as the Wechsler.

[removed]

b.

An objective test of psychopathology, such as the MMPI.

[removed]

c.

A projective test, such as the Rorschach inkblot test.

[removed]

d.

An interest inventory, such as the Self-Directed Search.

1 points   

QUESTION 6

1.      A Pearson-r correlation coefficient indicates:

[removed]

a.

The degree and direction of a relationship between two variables

[removed]

b.

The formula to predict one variable from another

[removed]

c.

Whether the means of two groups are significantly different from each other

[removed]

d.

The amount of score variability

1 points   

QUESTION 7

1.      On a midterm with 100 questions, the mean number correct was 80 with a standard deviation of 2. Shigeko obtained a score of 86. Based on this information, you could say that her performance was:

[removed]

a.

Slightly above average

[removed]

b.

Moderately above average

[removed]

c.

Far above average

[removed]

d.

Average

1 points   

QUESTION 8

1.      Dr. Roe finds a significant positive correlation between the number of cans of diet soda consumed per year and the number of days sick per year. From this correlation, you can confidently conclude that:

[removed]

a.

Ingredients in diet soda cause illness.

[removed]

b.

People crave diet soda when they are sick.

[removed]

c.

People who drink more diet soda tend to be sick more often.

[removed]

d.

Diet soda drinkers generally have a poorer diet.

1 points   

QUESTION 9

1.      Coefficient alpha measures:

[removed]

a.

Test item difficulty

[removed]

b.

The degree to which test items are consistent with each other

[removed]

c.

Test stability over time

[removed]

d.

The portion of a test score accounted for by guessing

1 points   

QUESTION 10

1.      A reliability coefficient of .80 indicates that test score variance is due to:

[removed]

a.

80% true score; 20% error

[removed]

b.

20% true score; 80% error

[removed]

c.

64% true score; 36% error

[removed]

d.

36% true score; 64% error

1 points   

QUESTION 11

1.      High test reliability indicates:

[removed]

a.

Low measurement error

[removed]

b.

High measurement error

[removed]

c.

Low prediction error

[removed]

d.

None of the above

1 points   

QUESTION 12

1.      Professor Rogers has created a test of self-esteem and reported that he obtained a validity coefficient of .85. Before concluding that this is a good test, the most important question to ask is:

[removed]

a.

What are Rogers’ academic credentials?

[removed]

b.

How many items are on the test?

[removed]

c.

Against what criterion was the test validated?

[removed]

d.

What is the response format?

1 points   

QUESTION 13

1.      It would be most appropriate to use a 1-year test–retest reliability coefficient for a test of:

[removed]

a.

Personality

[removed]

b.

Mood

[removed]

c.

Stress level

[removed]

d.

Fatigue

1 points   

QUESTION 14

1.      Inter-scorer reliability would most likely be reported for a scale with what response format?

[removed]

a.

Open-ended

[removed]

b.

Multiple Choice

[removed]

c.

True/False

[removed]

d.

Rating scale

1 points   

QUESTION 15

1.      Correlating high school senior SAT scores with their later freshman college GPA is an example of:

[removed]

a.

Concurrent validity

[removed]

b.

Face validity

[removed]

c.

Test-retest validity

[removed]

d.

Predictive validity

1 points   

QUESTION 16

1.      Which of the following is most likely to be a useful item for a test of self-esteem with a true/false response format?

[removed]

a.

“I feel good about myself.”

[removed]

b.

“I feel good about myself and I feel confident.”

[removed]

c.

“Either I feel good about myself or I feel confident.”

[removed]

d.

“Describe how you feel about yourself.”

1 points   

QUESTION 17

1.      A test item asks the respondent to choose whether he is more “Outgoing” or “Conscientious.” This is an example of what kind of item?

[removed]

a.

Ipsative

[removed]

b.

Forced choice

[removed]

c.

Likert

[removed]

d.

a or b

1 points   

QUESTION 18

1.      A test requires respondents to respond to items by indicating if they “Strongly disagree,” “Disagree,” “Agree,” or “Strongly agree.” This is an example of a(n):

[removed]

a.

Open-ended response

[removed]

b.

Likert scale

[removed]

c.

Forced-choice response

[removed]

d.

Multiple-choice response

1 points   

QUESTION 19

1.       Here are three questions for a measure of anxiety:
Q1) I worry all the time 
Q2) I feel very tense 
Q3) I feel relaxed 

The respondent is asked to rate each item on a 3-point scale, 1: Never, 2: Sometimes, 3: Always. Which of the following formulas would you use to transform Q3 before doing an item analysis?

[removed]

a.

4 – Q3

[removed]

b.

Q3*(-1)

[removed]

c.

3 – Q3

[removed]

d.

Q3/3

1 points   

QUESTION 20

1.      Random selection from a population means that participants are chosen:

[removed]

a.

Haphazardly

[removed]

b.

So that each one has an equal likelihood of being selected

[removed]

c.

So that sample demographics closely match the population demographics

[removed]

d.

By testing participants who are easiest to contact

1 points   

QUESTION 21

1.      Dr. Campbell uses an Internet form to gather standardization information for a new intelligence test. He wants data for people in an area with over a million residents. This area has few computers and little Internet access. He uses online advertising to direct residents to his test. After persistent efforts, he is able to obtain data for 1,000 residents. He is able to verify reliably that the participants are residents of his area of interest. What would you say about this dataset?

[removed]

a.

The size of the dataset is adequate so this can be considered a representative sample.

[removed]

b.

If the demographics (ethnicity, gender, age) are similar to the area’s population demographics, then this can be considered a representative sample.

[removed]

c.

If he obtained a larger sample (i.e., 10,000 people) then the sample could be considered representative.

[removed]

d.

This would not be considered a representative sample, even if it were larger or consistent with population demographics.

1 points   

QUESTION 22

1.      Computerized adaptive testing (CAT) is a system in which:

[removed]

a.

Items are modified to accommodate disabilities.

[removed]

b.

Items are selected based on responses to previous items.

[removed]

c.

Items are presented which make use of computer graphics.

[removed]

d.

The respondent uses computer input devices specifically designed for the test.

1 points   

QUESTION 23

1.      Six-year old Billy and his 20-year-old brother Sam both obtain valid IQ scores of 110. Their mother comments that Billy is really smarter since his score is particularly impressive “for a 6-year-old.” Which of the following would likely be correct?

[removed]

a.

Billy is not currently smarter, but he will be when he and Sam are both adults.

[removed]

b.

IQ is age adjusted, so Billy and Sam are at the same percentile, relative to their respective age groups.

[removed]

c.

Billy and Sam would be about equally matched on games requiring intelligence, such as chess.

[removed]

d.

Their mother is correct.

1 points   

QUESTION 24

1.      You have developed a test of musical ability, and would like to report the scores as Stanines, with a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 2. Raw scores on your test have a mean of 30 and a standard deviation of 5. What is the Stanine score for someone who obtains a raw score of 25?

[removed]

a.

1

[removed]

b.

3

[removed]

c.

7

[removed]

d.

9

1 points   

QUESTION 25

1.      According to Item Response Theory, “theta” for a particular individual on a particular item is related to:

[removed]

a.

The probability that she will pass the item

[removed]

b.

Her ability to understand the item wording

[removed]

c.

The degree to which the item distinguishes her from other test takers

[removed]

d.

Her likelihood of correctly guessing the answer

1 points   

QUESTION 26

1.      The three-parameter IRT model indicates which three item characteristics?

[removed]

a.

Discrimination, readability, difficulty

[removed]

b.

Difficulty, unique contribution to the toal score, discrimination

[removed]

c.

Difficulty, chance of guessing correctly, discrimination

[removed]

d.

Reliability, unique contribution to the total score, validity

1 points   

QUESTION 27

1.      You are creating a new scale using classical test analysis. Which of these four items would you eliminate? Note: Please use the table found at the top of this page to complete this question.

[removed]

a.

Item A

[removed]

b.

Item B

[removed]

c.

Item C

[removed]

d.

Item D

1 points   

QUESTION 28

1.      Which of the following provides clear evidence of unlawful adverse impact?

[removed]

a.

Men obtain lower scores on a test of management ability and so are less likely to be chosen for certain management positions.

[removed]

b.

White applicants tend to score higher on a job selection test and are hired over lower-scoring nonwhites, even though whites are already overrepresented in the job category.

[removed]

c.

Persons who are under age 40 score higher on a test of popular culture and are hired over older applicants. High scores on this test do not predict better performance on this job.

[removed]

d.

Applicants for a position as a proofreader are given a test of reading ability; an applicant with dyslexia fails the test and is not hired.

1 points   

QUESTION 29

1.      Which of the following activities is a clear ethical violation?

[removed]

a.

Displaying a few MMPI items on your website for educational purposes

[removed]

b.

Releasing a psychological testing report directly to a client

[removed]

c.

Administering an IQ test and reporting the results to a private client who is curious about his IQ

[removed]

d.

Recommending specific jobs in a vocational assessment

1 points   

QUESTION 30

1.      DIF is a technique that could be used to determine:

[removed]

a.

Whether an item on a translation of a test functions the same as the original item

[removed]

b.

The percentile rank of a particular client on a test

[removed]

c.

Whether an applicant will be successful on a job, based on test results

[removed]

d.

What a test score would be, adjusting for guessing