Leadership Retreat

Assignment Content

  1. Design a 12-topic agenda for a 2-day, 16-hour leadership retreat.

    Create the agenda topics with 250-word descriptions relevant to issues related to health care entities.

    Format your citations according to APA guidelines.

I need a final research paper written by sunday. can anyone get this done?Answers 2Bids 1Other questions 10

Final Research ProjectThe topic of your project needs to be a contemporary societal problem, such as healthcare reform, immigration reform, privacy rights, euthanasia, First Amendment Rights, stem cell research, capital punishment, corporate prisons, legalizing drugs, ageism, animal rights, cloning, prayer in schools, racial profiling, recycling/conservation, sexism, outsourcing jobs, workplace bullying, etc. The topic must focus on a single aspect, as in “How far do corporations intrude into the private lives of their employers?” or “The social costs of financing the distribution of custom-designed drugs.” You may suggest another topic to use, but the instructor must approve the topic during the Week Two Discussion.The Final Research Project will present research relating the responsibilities of a critical thinker to contemporary society. In this assignment, you will do the following:Research one aspect of a contemporary social problem.Define the problem.Propose a possible solution for the problem.Create an argument that supports your thesis position. You should take on the perspective of a critically thinking researcher. The argument must present a thesis statement and evidence to support the thesis statement.Evaluate the ethical outcomes that result from the position you take on the issue and explain how those outcomes would influence society and culture.Interpret statistical data from at least two peer-reviewed scholarly sources.Evaluate evidence using the following standards: validity, reliability, and bias related to the chosen topic and accurately identify strengths and weaknesses.Research and Define the ProblemYou must take on the perspective of your major field of study and explain in your paper what that perspective is and how it informs your view of the topic. The topics listed above are far too broad to write about in 10–12 pages (3,300–3,900 words). Instead, you must choose a narrowly defined thesis and approach it from the perspective of your field.Example: If you are an economics major, and you are interested in immigration reform, you should approach a very specific aspect of immigration reform through the lens of economic theory and practice. A specific thesis question would not be, “How does illegal immigration influence the U.S. economy?” One could write thousands of pages on such a topic. Instead, a better question would be, “How do illegal immigrant hotel workers in Chicago impact the economy of Northern Illinois?” You would then want to do the research and determine the positive and negative impacts they have, ultimately trying to conclude how illegal immigration in this area should be approached ethically.How to Hone Your Thesis: It is important that you start your research early in this course. Try to find the most important contemporary questions and theories in your field of study and then align the most important questions with a very specific aspect of the general topics above. For example, if you are a psychology major, you might want to start thinking within the realm of healthcare reform or aspects of mental health and criminality in the prison system.Your ArgumentYou must present a complete argument, including a major claim with at least five points of evidence, information, or data that will prove the claim.The thesis statement must beA clear, simple declarative sentence as the first or last sentence in the opening paragraph of the essay.Of such a nature that it can be substantiated, corroborated, verified, and proved through appeal to primary or secondary academic research source materials.The introductory paragraph mustPresent the thesis statement, an explanation for the importance of the topic, and its relation to the student’s field of study.Beliefs, opinions, and personal opinions must not be introduced at any point in the essay.All beliefs and opinions should be supported with academic evidence. Sweeping generalizations with no supporting academic evidence do not reflect adequate critical thinking skills.Do not include rhetorical questions in your essays. All the questions that are pertinent to your project need to be answered in your essay and your answers again need to be supported with evidence from peer-reviewed journal articles and academically published books.Attributes of Good Critical Thinking in PapersYour paper should include academic sources that explain multiple sides of the issue.The evidence that you use should come from high-level researchers engaged in your field of study.Your interpretations of the evidence should be objective and state the conclusions and theses presented in the evidence clearly and fairly.Your paper should place the various forms of evidence in relation to one another and demonstrate why one form or perspective is stronger than the other positions that one could take on the issue.Your paper should point out the limitations of current evidence and attempt to indicate areas for future research.Ethical Outcomes of the Position You TakeAfter you have defined the problem and created an argument about how one ought to respond to the issue, you need to explain the ethical outcomes of the position you have taken. This should again be in relation to the field of study in which you are working. There might be different ethical outcomes that result from your analysis. For example, going back to the example issue above, from an economic standpoint, illegal immigrants might contribute positively to the economy of Northern Illinois in a specific number of ways. Thus, an economist who believes that positive impact to the economy is the greatest good would say that one should promote the use of illegal immigrants. However, because these workers are often paid less than others and eliminate jobs that could be done by residents of Chicago, there could be other negative ethical outcomes that would outweigh the positive impacts to the economy. It is your goal to draw out the ethical implications of your thesis and explain the underlying rationale that is the foundation for your claim that one action is better than another.Critical thinkers are those who can outline the positive and negative ethical impacts of their positions. In addition, they are able to provide a rationale for why they believe a specific position is the right position, even when it leads to negative outcomes.Critical thinkers are also able to be honest and objective about the limitations and gray areas that pertain to their theses.Final Research Project RequirementsThe Final Research Project may be presented as a formal research paper (essay format), a PowerPoint presentation, a video, or a podcast equivalent to a minimum of 10 – 12 pages in APA format (approximately 3,300 – 3,900 typewritten words, excluding title page and reference pages). Written essays must adhere to all APA formatting standards and requirements, as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.PowerPoint presentations must include the full text (at least 3,300 words) in the speaker notes portion of the slides, with appropriate citations, and full reference pages. PowerPoint presentations must adhere to the basic principles of PowerPoint presentation design and must include citations and references according to APA standards and requirements.Videos and podcasts must include a full transcript, in APA format, including appropriate in-text citations and a references page.Quotations:There must be no more than 15% quoted content in the body of your essay. All quoted material must bear quotation marks and a full quotation citation.Source Documents:There must be 10 or more source documents used, cited, and referenced.Multimedia sources (such as videos) may be used, but no more than two such sources may be used. If multimedia sources are used, then they must be authored and distributed by credible sources, such as universities, law schools, medical schools, or professors, or found in the Ashford University Library.Where print documents are used for source materials, those must be peer-reviewed, scholarly journal articles, and academically published books. Popular media sources (e.g., newspapers, magazines, television and radio shows, etc.) may not be used. Materials from advocacy groups (e.g., Greenpeace, Human Rights Campaign, National Organization for Women, etc.) may not be used.Two of the peer-reviewed scholarly sources used must include statistical evidence, which must be accurately interpreted.Sites such as ProCon.org and Wikipedia should not be used.Religious texts are neither peer-reviewed nor scholarly and so may not be used in any way.Summary Conclusion:You must have a summary conclusion as the last paragraph(s) of the project, presenting the major point of the essay and the evidence supporting that point.Word Count:The content body of the project must be 3,300 words or more. The word count does not include anything in the title page, running header, or reference list. It is expected that you meet all logistical requirements of this paper.Reference List:The list of references must include only those source documents that are cited within the body of the project.The project must fully comply with APA formatting standards and requirements as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center: title page, running header with page numbers, font face and size, line spacing, citations, and reference page(s).

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U.S History Research Paper Answers 1Bids 1Other questions 10

Paper #1( fill out worksheet Below): US History Exploration Worksheet All historians have areas of interest that they choose to study. This is what you will be doing in your final paper! First, however, you must decide what will be the focus of your paper. In this activity, you will be exploring your chosen topic and then narrowing your focus. Finally, you will begin thinking about your sources and how they might connect to your paper.  Answering these questions below is the first step in writing your final paper! Step 1: Select your topic and focus question! Read the topics from the list on page 2 of this document and choose the topic and focus that interests you. Fill out the box below. What’s your topic and focus question? Topic: Focus Question: Step 2: In 50 words or more, state why you chose the topic and focus question that you chose. It could be how the topic is of interest to you and that you have studied it previously, or it could be a subject that you want to learn more about something of which you do not have knowledge.   Step 3: List the two primary source and two secondary sources that you have chosen in the boxes below. Source TypeSource NamePrimary Source #1 Primary Source #2 Secondary Source #1 Secondary Source #2   Step 4: In 50 words or more, describe your initial thoughts about how your sources relate to your chosen topic and focus. Make sure to provide specific examples from each of the four sources that illustrate how they will help you answer your focus question. This will help you begin to think about the form of your paper!       Topic instructions: Select a topic from this list. Once you have done this, select your specific focus and sources from the next list.1.     This Land is My Land2.     Revolutionary Ideas3.     The New Nation4.     Going Underground5.     All Men Are Created Equal6.     In Her Place7.     Splitting Up8.     Fighting for Peace Focus and source instructions: Now that you have your topic, select your desired focus option. Then, it will list the sources that can be used for this topic. Choose two primary and two secondary sources. Think about your choices and then fill out the worksheet on page 1! 1.     This Land is My Land a.     Focus Question: Analyze the major causes of the tensions between the Native Americans and the European colonists in the 16th-18th centuries. Primary Sources:1.     Lion Gardener, “Relation of the Pequot Warres”, 16602.     John Mason’s “Brief History of the Pequot War”3.     Indian Complaints about English Settlers, 16754.     Edward Randolph’s Report of King Philip’s War, 1675Secondary Sources:1.     Philip Ranlet, “Another Look at the Causes of the King Philip’s War”2.     Alden T. Vaughan, “Pequots and Puritans: The Causes of the War of 1637”3.     James Drake, “Restraining Atrocity: The Conduct of King Philip’s War” b.     Focus Question: Evaluate the impact of the Pequot War on either the Europeans or Natives. Primary Sources:1.     Indian Complaints about English Settlers, 16752.     Edward Randolph’s Report of King Philip’s War, 1675Secondary Sources:1.     Adam J. Hirsch, “The Collision of Military Cultures in Seventeenth-Century New England.”2.     Michal L. Fickes, “’They Could Not Endure that Yoke’: The Capitivity of Pequot Women and Children after the War of 1637” 2.     Revolutionary Ideas a.     Focus Question: Compare and contrast the main arguments of the Patriots and Loyalists. Primary Sources:1.     Reports of Mob Attacks on Loyalists2.     A Loyalist Poem, “The Patriots of North America”3.     Thomas Paines’s Common Sense4.     A Loyalist TractSecondary Sources:1.     Benjamin A. Irvin, “Tar, Feathers, and the Enemies of American Liberties, 1768-1776”2.     Keith Mason, “Localism, Evangelicalism, and Loyalism: The Sources of Discontent in the Revolutionary Chesapeake.”3.     Wallace Brown, “The American Farmer During the Revolution: Rebel or Loyalist?” b.     Focus Question: Analyze the main reasons for the outbreak of the Revolutionary War.Primary Sources:1.     Thomas Paine’s Common Sense2.     A Loyalist Tract3.     Charles Inglis’ reply to Common SenseSecondary Sources:1.     Michael A. McDonnell, “A World Turned ‘Topsy Turvy’: Robert Munford, The Patriots, and the Crisis of the Revolution in Virginia.”2.     Anna Alden Allen, “Patriots and Loyalists: The Choice of Political Allegiances by the Members of Maryland’s Proprietary Elite.”  3.     The New Nation a.     Focus Question: Analyze the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation.  How did the Constitution serve to address these weaknesses?Primary Sources:1.     Federalist #152.     The Dissent of the Minority of the Convention of PennsylvaniaSecondary Sources:1.     Robert A. Feer, “Shay’s Rebellion and the Constitution: A Study in Causation”2.     Donald S. Lutz, “The Articles of Confederation as the Background to the Federal Republic” b.     Focus Question: Evaluate the “spirit of compromise” involved in the ratification of the Constitution.Primary Sources:1.     Objections to the Constitution2.     The Dissent of the Minority of the Convention of PennsylvaniaSecondary Sources:1.     Robert A. McGuire and Robert L. Ohsfeldt, “Self-Interest, Agency Theory, and Political Voting Behavior: The Ratification of the United States Constitution.”2.     Robin Brooks, “Alexander Hamilton, Melancton Smith, and the Ratification of the Constitution in New York.” 4.     Going Underground a.     Focus Question: Analyze the motivations for the development of the Underground Railroad. Primary Sources:1.     Fugitive Slave Act2.     Reward for Return of a Slave3.     Levi Coffin’s Underground Railroad Station4.     The Slave PolicySecondary Sources:1.     Larry Gara, “The Underground Railroad: Legend or Reality”2.     Gayle T. Tate, “Free Black Resistance in the Antebellum Era, 1830 to 1860”3.     Stanley Harrold, “On the Borders of Slavery and Race: Charles T. Torrey and the Underground Railroad” b.     Focus Question: Evaluate the effectiveness of the Underground Railroad in assisting slaves escape and remain free.Primary Sources:1.     The Conductor’s Diary2.     Levi Coffin’s Underground Railroad StationSecondary Sources:1.     Nilgun Anadolu Okur, “Underground Railroad in Philadelphia, 1830-1860”2.     Larry Gara, “The Underground Railroad: Legend or Reality”  5.     All men Are Created Equal a.     Focus Question: Evaluate the key arguments of the abolitionists, making sure to discuss the economic, social, and political impact of abolition.Primary Sources:1.     Fugitive Slave Act2.     Dred Scott3.     Three Grand Mistakes4.     Reward for Return of Slave5.     Caution to African American’s in BostonSecondary Sources:1.     Jane H. Pease and William H. Pease, “Confrontation and Abolition in the 1850s”2.     John S. Vishneski, III, “What the Court Decided in Dred Scott v. Sandford”3.     Alix Oswald, “The Reaction to the Dred Scott Decision”4.     Stephen Middleton, “The Fugitive Slave Crisis in Cincinnati, 1850-1860: Resistance, Enforcement, and Black Refugees”5.     Robert J. Loewenberg, “John Locke and the Antebellum Defense of Slavery” 6.     In Her Place? a.     Focus Question: Analyze the changing role of women in society.  Be sure to discuss the economic, religious, demographic, and/or cultural influences and highlight the reformers who helped shape the movement.  What were the goals of the early women’s movement?Primary Sources:1.     Eliza Bixby’s letter to her brother2.     How the Americans Understand the Equality of the Sexes3.     Woman’s Present and Future4.     The Ladies of Trenton AssembleSecondary Sources:1.     Elizabeth Cometii, “Women in the American Revolution”2.     Barbara E. Lacey, “Women in the Era of the American Revolution: The Case of Norwich Connecticut”3.     John L. Brooke, “Spheres, Sites, Subjectivity, History: Reframing Antebellum American Society”4.     Regina Markell Morantz, “Making Women Modern: Middle Class Women and Health Reform in 19th Century America”5.     Thomas Dublin, “Women, Work, and Protest in the Early Lowell Mills: ‘The Oppressing hand of Avarice Would Enslave Us” 7.     Splitting Up a.     Focus Question: Evaluate the arguments given by the south justifying secession. Contrast these arguments with those in favor of maintaining unity.Primary Sources:1.     The Declaration of Causes of Seceding States2.     The Rebuke of Secession doctrines3.     The Secession of Virginia and the American Civil War: The Illustrated News, May 18, 18614.     Northern Interests and Southern Independence: A Plea for United ActionSecondary Sources:1.     Hudson Meadwell and Lawrence M. Anderson, “Sequence and Strategy in the Secession of the American South”2.     William S. Hitchcock, “The Limits of Southern Unionism: Virginia Conservatives and the Gubernatorial Election of 1859”3.     Frank F. White, Jr., “A Soldier Views the Secession Crisis” 8.     Fighting for Peace a.     Focus Question: Compare and contrast the war efforts of the Confederacy and Union.  What were the strengths and weaknesses of each side?Primary Sources:1.     Confederate soldier’s letter home about shortages in camp2.     “Four Years Under Marse Robert”3.     “Life in the Confederate Army”4.     A Woman’s War Record, 1861-18655.     Union Soldier’s letter to his sister on the comforts of camp lifeSecondary Sources:1.     Richard H. Shyrock, “A Medical Perspective on the Civil War”2.     Alan Farmer, “Why Was the Confederacy Defeated?”3.     William O. Brown Jr. and Richard C. K. Burdekin, “Turning Points in the US Civil War: A British Perspective”4.     The National Museum of Health and Medicine, “To Bind Up the Nation’s Wounds”  Part Two: Write paper in a well educated flow (Very Thorough)  Write in seperate Word Documents. Thanks!

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Homework help for mgt Answers 1Bids 2Other questions 10

THE HOMEWORK THE FOR FUNDAMENTALS OF HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT.    The Human Resource Environment When you have completed your exam and reviewed your answers,  Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer. 1. Which of the following cases would most likely be filed under the theory of disparate impact? A. A black employee is fired for testifying in a discrimination suit filed against an employer. B. A white applicant is told he won’t be hired because the employer doesn’t like whites. C. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected relative to whites by a paper-and-pencil test. D. White applicants with high test scores are rejected due to an affirmative-action plan. 2. Which of the following terms describes the best possible fit between a company’s social system and its technical system? A. Self-service system B. Outsourcing C. High-performance work system D. Total quality management 3. People’s right to freedom of speech is the right to A. do as they wish in their private life. B. refuse to do something that’s environmentally unsafe. C. be treated only as they knowingly and willingly consent to be treated. D. criticize an organization’s ethics if they do it in good conscience. 4. Which of the following categories of workers is not covered under OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standards? A. A technician servicing copy machines for most of the day B. A receptionist changing the toner in a copier machine C. Health-care workers exposed to latex and disinfectants D. Production engineers manufacturing car batteries 5. The largest number of immigrants to the U.S. workforce are from A. North America. B. Europe. C. Africa. D. Asia. 6. Which of the following is a correct statement about dejobbing? A. Dejobbing involves the use of task-based organization structures. B. Dejobbing involves the downsizing or elimination of jobs. C. Dejobbing involves emphasizing on detailed job descriptions which will be applicable year after year. D. Dejobbing involves viewing organizations as a field of work to be done. 7. Which of the following decisions does not come under HRM? A. Whom to hire B. How to achieve sales targets C. What training to offer D. How to evaluate employee performance 8. Which of the following is a false statement about the Position Analysis Questionnaire? A. It’s one of the broadest and best-researched instruments for analyzing jobs. B. It’s a standardized, commercial instrument. C. It describes specific duties and tasks that comprise the actual job. D. It requires trained job analysts to complete it. 9. Which of the following is a false statement about the Occupational Safety and Health Act? A. The act applies to organizations that employ 50 or more persons working 20 or more weeks a year and that are involved in interstate commerce. B. Under the act, covered employers must keep records of work-related injuries and illnesses and post an annual summary of these records. C. It’s the most comprehensive U.S. law regarding worker safety. D. Enforcement responsibilities for the act are divided between the Department of Labor and the Department of Health. 10. Which of the following approaches would be most appropriate when gathering information for jobs that are repetitive and involve physical activity? A. A job analyst questions the peers about a particular job. B. A job analyst visits the workplace and videotapes an employee performing the job. C. A manager imagines what a well-done job would look like. D. A job analyst visits the workplace and asks employees to show what the job entails. 11. Which of the following is a true statement about Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? A. The act applies to organizations with 15 employees or more. B. The act is enforced by the U.S. Department of Labor. C. The act protects employers from employee threats. D. The act prohibits employers from discriminating against workers due to their age. 12. The processing and transmission of digitized HR information, especially using computer networking and the Internet, is known as A. e-business. B. reengineering. C. human resource information system implementation. D. electronic human resource management. 13. One of the most common grievances that employees at Craines Tech have is that they don’t get performance feedback. That is, they don’t get proper information as to how they’ve performed and where they need to improve, and the performance goals are vague and not measurable. Which HR function does Craines Tech need to improve? A. Employee relations B. Recruitment and selection C. Performance management D. Training and development 14. Which of the following refers to the KSAOs that an individual must have to perform the job? A. Job specifications B. Job analysis C. Dictionary of Occupational Titles D. Job descriptions 15. For which of the following occupations would it be easiest to implement telework? A. Machine operator B. Quality management C. Production technician D. Graphic designer 16. Which of the following refers to an employer’s obligation to do something to enable an otherwise qualified person to perform a job? A. Reasonable accommodation B. Reverse discrimination C. General-duty clause D. Utilization analysis 17. Which of the following managerial functions is often assumed by work teams? A. Conducting performance reviews B. Controlling finances allocated for the project C. Making strategy-related decisions such as areas to diversify in D. Performing inspection and quality-control activities 18. Which of the following responsibilities is associated with the HR function of support for strategy? A. Human resource discipline B. Human resource relocation and outplacement services C. Human resource planning and forecasting D. Orientation End of       19. Which of the following is not an action that OSHA can take, under the Occupational Safety and Health Act? A. Issue citations and require that they be posted in a prominent place near the location of the violations B. Conduct unannounced workplace inspections C. Close a workplace that represents an occupational hazard D. Assess fines ranging from $20,000 for violations that result in the death of an employee to $1,000 for less serious violations 20. Managers and economists traditionally have seen HRM as a(n) A. source of value to their organization. B. asset. C. necessary expense. D. essential component of a high-performance work system.                 Acquiring and Preparing Human Resources   Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer. 1. Which of the following is a permissible question for applications and interviews? A. Do you have any disabilities? B. Do you have children? C. What schools have you attended? D. When did you attend high school? 2. The general method of establishing the validity of a selection method by showing that there’s an association between scores on the selection measure and scores for job performance is called A. criterion-related validation. B. content validation. C. reliability of the measurement and validation. D. split-half estimate of validation. 3. To increase the readability of training materials, one should A. add checklists and illustrations to clarify the text. B. combine two or more sentences into one long sentence C. combine two or more paragraphs into one long paragraph. D. replace concrete words with abstract words. 4. Should a former employer give a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learn of misconduct on the part of the employee during his or her previous employment, the new employer may sue the former for A. defamation. B. lack of validity. C. misrepresentation. D. negligent omission. 5. _______ identifies the tasks, knowledge, skills, and behaviors that training should emphasize. A. Organizational analysis B. Task analysis C. Person analysis D. Training-method analysis 6. In personnel forecasting, an effective HR professional tries to A. predict the number and types of legal challenges the company is likely to face within the year. B. anticipate trends within the HR field which are most likely to affect the success of current company operations. C. develop HR policies and practices in response to anticipated moves by major competitors. D. determine the supply of and demand for various types of human resources. 7. Which of the following correctly describes a learning management system? A. A computer application that automates the administration, development, and delivery of training programs B. The process of evaluating the organization, individual employees, and employees’ tasks to determine what kinds of training, if any, are necessary C. A process for determining the appropriateness of training by evaluating the characteristics of the organization D. A process of systematically developing training to meet specified needs 8. The degree to which the information provided by selection methods enhances the effectiveness of selecting personnel in organizations refers to the selection method’s A. utility. B. reliability. C. generalizability. D. validity. 9. Which of the following is a correct statement about executive search firms? A. Executive search firms work almost exclusively with high-level, unemployed executives. B. Executive search firms typically require the person being placed to make the initial contact with the prospective employer directly. C. Executive search firms aren’t subject to the requirements of Title VII. D. Executive search firms almost exclusively find new jobs for people who are already employed. 10. Which of the following is not among the best ways for companies to establish a stronger recruiting presence on a campus? A. Select a limited number of campuses on which to recruit, and return to them on a yearly basis with new job openings. B. Establish college internship programs. C. Select campuses within a 150-mile radius of the company’s headquarters to ensure students are familiar with the company and its products or services. D. Participate in university job fairs. 11. Which of the following tests assesses how well a person can acquire skills and abilities? A. Aptitude B. Personality inventories C. Cognitive ability D. Achievement 12. The steps required to properly execute a workforce utilization review are A. essentially the same as those involved in the strategic planning process. B. essentially the same as those involved in job analysis. C. tremendously varied from organization to organization. D. identical to the steps in the generic human resource planning process. 13. Which of the following is a false statement about using simulations as a training technique? A. Simulations are used to teach production and process skills as well as management and interpersonal skills. B. Simulators need to have identical elements to those found in the work environment. C. Simulations are inexpensive to develop and maintain due to virtual-reality technologies. D. Simulations allow trainees to see the effects of their decisions in an artificial, risk-free environment. 14. Which of the following is found in a typical behavior-modeling session? A. Presentation of the key behaviors, videotape of a model performing the key behavior, role-plays, and a planning session B. Presentation of key behaviors, videotape of a model performing the key behavior, participation in a case study group, and planning session C. Lecture, videotape of a model performing the key behavior, on-the-job coaching, and practice opportunities D. Videotape of a model performing the key behavior, planning session, coaching realistic game, and practice opportunities 15. To select a training service, the organization mails a(n) _______ to several vendors. A. request for training B. request for proposal C. training-needs analysis D. affirmative-action plan 16. Imagine that you manage a car dealership affiliated with one of the big three U.S. automakers. Given the increasing complexity and variety of today’s automobiles, it’s impossible to train your mechanics on the details of every potential repair problem. Thus, in cooperation with corporate headquarters, you have a training program whereby mechanics learn the basis of engine, emission, and other types of repair, but in the case of a particular problem, seek expert advice through an online computer application program. This approach is known as A. an experiential behavior-modeling program. B. e-learning. C. an electronic performance support system. D. a virtual-reality simulation training program. 17. Which of the following options for avoiding an expected labor shortage has the benefit of being a relatively fast solution with high revocability? A. Overtime B. New external hires C. Turnover D. Retrained transfer 18. Three of the following would enhance recruiter effectiveness. Which would not enhance recruiter effectiveness? A. Using realistic job previews as part of the recruitment process End of exam B. Recruiting in teams rather than individually C. Ensuring that recruiters are knowledgeable about company policies and procedures D. Ensuring that recruiters provide applicants with timely feedback 19. The long-term success of diversity training is characterized by A. unstructured programs. B. the number of minority or disabled employees on staff within the organization. C. training that’s tied to business objectives, such as understanding customers. D. making sure that HRM practices meet standards of equal employment opportunity laws. 20. According to the Training 2007 Industry Report, which training task was outsourced the most? A. Instruction B. Custom content C. Learner support D. Need analysis         Assessing Performance and Developing Employees When you have completed your exam and reviewed your answers, click Submit Exam. Answers will not be recorded until you   Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer. 1. Three of the following are trends in executive education. Which one is not a trend in executive education? A. Formal educational programs are being supplemented with other developmental activities. B. Distance learning is being used more frequently by companies. C. Employers and education providers are developing short courses with content designed specifically for the audience. D. Due to increasing costs, employees are increasingly being asked to cover tuition and other program-related costs. 2. Explanation, consideration, and empathy are key determinants of A. procedural justice. B. interactional justice. C. alternative dispute resolutions. D. perceptual justice. 3. In terms of job dissatisfaction, an employee who calls in sick or arrives to work late is engaging in A. behavior change. B. psychological withdrawal. C. physical withdrawal. D. whistleblowing. 4. The primary use of assessment centers is to identify A. decision processes and communication styles that inhibit production. B. employees’ personality types and job interests. C. employees who have the personality, characteristics, and skills needed for managerial positions. D. the strengths and weaknesses of team members. 5. Generally speaking, the contents of employees’ e-mail and voice-mail messages on companies’ systems are A. protected and private if job-related. B. not private, protected communications. C. protected and private only if they’re directed to parties outside of the company. D. private, protected communications. 6. Based on the expectation that two people in conflict should first try to arrive at a settlement together, the organization has a policy of making managers available to hear complaints. Typically, the first open door is that of the employee’s A. immediate subordinates. B. immediate supervisor. C. peers. D. director. 7. Which of the following is a false statement about using peers as a source of performance information? A. Peer ratings, according to research, are highly influenced by friendships. B. Peers are more willing participants in reviews used for employees. C. Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and bring a unique perspective to the evaluation, often resulting in extremely valid assessments of performance. D. Peer ratings are particularly useful when supervisors don’t have the opportunity to observe employees. 8. Which of the following is a false statement about the glass ceiling? A. The barrier may be due to a lack of access to training programs, developmental job experiences, and developmental relationships, such as mentoring. B. Research has found gender differences in accessing job experiences involving transitions and creating change. C. The barrier may be due to stereotypes that hinder the development of women and minorities. D. Research shows male managers receive more assignments involving high levels of responsibility than do female managers of similar ability and managerial level. 9. Which of the following statements correctly describes in-basket exercises? A. In-basket exercises simulate the administrative tasks of a manager’s job, using a pile of documents for the employee to handle. B. In-basket exercises are paper-and-pencil tests designed to measure participants’ communication styles and skills. C. In-basket exercises require participants to take the part of a manager or employee in a situation involving the skills to be assessed. D. In-basket exercises require teams of five to seven employees to work together to solve assigned problems within a certain time period. 10. The step in the career management process in which employees receive information about their skills and knowledge and where these assets fit into the organization’s plans is called A. action planning. B. reality check. C. self-assessment. D. goal setting. 11. HR professionals can best help organizations avoid and defend against charges of wrongful discharge through all of three following activities. Which of the following is not a good way for HR professionals to help organizations avoid and defend against charges of wrongful discharge? A. Designing jobs with low mental and physical skill demands to ensure low employee turnover B. Training managers to avoid making promises before or during employment that imply job security C. Establishing and communicating policies for handling employee misbehavior D. Writing and reviewing employee handbooks to avoid statements that might be interpreted as employment contracts 12. Advantages of result-based measures include three of the following. Which is not an advantage of result-based measures? A. Result-based measures are highly acceptable to employees and managers alike. B. Result-based measures are generally less subjective than other kinds of performance systems. C. Result-based measures are relatively easy to link to the organization’s goals. D. Result-based measures are very effective in providing guidance on how to improve. 13. If a performance measure lacks _______ reliability, determining whether an employee’s performance has truly changed over time will be impossible. A. test-retest B. interrater C. external D. strategic 14. Why would an employee seek a downward move? A. To have more authority B. To learn different skills C. To have greater challenges D. To increase salary and visibility 15. An employee refuses an employer’s request to falsify the contents of a report to the EEOC. The employer subsequently discharges the worker for ‘not following orders.’ In a wrongful-discharge suit, the employee is likely to argue which of the following exceptions to the at-will-employment doctrine? A. Public policy B. Equal employment C. Implied contract D. Reverse discrimination 16. Which of the following statements illustrates effective feedback? A. ‘You’ve achieved 100 percent of your target in less than six months.’ B. ‘Overall, your performance has been satisfactory.’ C. ‘I don’t see any progress from the last review; you’re lazy.’ D. ‘You’ve become careless; you came in late three times last week.’ 17. To improve performance of underutilizers, managers should A. withhold pay increases. B. demote them from their current position. C. link rewards to performance outcomes. D. offer temporary assignments for skill development. 18. The type of performance management system in which a company assembles performance data on an       Compensating Human Resources Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer. 1. The Scanlon plan is a variation of which type of incentive? A. Gainsharing B. Merit pay C. Profit sharing D. Individual 2. The National Compensation Survey is an ongoing activity of the A. AFL-CIO. B. Society for Human Resource Management. C. Bureau of Labor Statistics. D. American Management Association. 3. Three of the following are objectives of the unemployment insurance program. Which is not an objective of the unemployment insurance program? A. To offset lost income during a labor dispute B. To provide an incentive for employers to stabilize employment C. To preserve investments in worker skills by providing income during short-term layoffs D. To offset lost income during involuntary unemployment 4. Pay specifically designed to energize, direct, or control employees’ behavior is known as A. indirect pay. B. exempt pay. C. empowerment pay. D. incentive pay. 5. From which source do most retirees receive the largest percentage of their retirement income? A. Private pensions B. Earnings from personal assets C. Social Security D. Disability insurance 6. An employee produces 10 components in an hour and earns $8.00 ($.80 × 10), while an employee who produces 12 components per hour earns $9.60 ($.80 × 12). This arrangement is an example of a _______ plan. A. commission B. straight-salary C. differential-piece-rate D. straight-piecework 7. In response to the growing concern over ethical issues surrounding incentive pay for executives, three of the following actions have been taken. Which action has not been taken in response to the growing concern over ethical issues? A. Requiring companies to more clearly report executive compensation levels and the company’s performance relative to that of competitors B. Using the balanced-scorecard to design executive pay and incentives C. Imposing strict limits on insider trading D. Limiting the amount companies may deduct for executive and performance-related pay to no more than $1 million 8. In 2003, a company employee received an option to purchase the company’s stock at $45 per share. If the stock is trading at $40 a share in 2005, the employee will most likely A. hold on to the option, hoping the stock price will increase in the future. B. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $5. C. try changing the price in the original option agreement to improve the stock’s performance. D. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $40. 9. By law, what percent of assets must an ESOP invest in its company’s stock? A. 80 percent B. 100 percent C. 10 percent D. 51 percent 10. On average, out of every dollar spent on compensation, about _______ cents go to benefits. A. 45 B. 8 C. 17 D. 30 11. Which level of child care is most frequently provided by organizations with 100 or more employees? A. The organization supplies and helps employees collect information about the cost and quality of available child care. B. The organization offers no support within this area. C. The organization operates a day-care center at or near the workplace. D. The organization provides vouchers or discounts for employees to use at existing child-care facilities. 12. A system in which an employer pays a worker specifically for each unit produced is known as A. salary. B. gross pay. C. hourly wage. D. piecework rate. 13. An employee earns $10 an hour and receives a weekly attendance award of $20. That employee works 50 hours this week and thus earns a total compensation of A. $557.50. B. $577.50. C. $550.00. D. $570.00. 14. Three of the following are types of defined-contribution pension plans. Which of the following is not a type of defined-contribution pension plan? A. Section 401(k) plan B. Money purchase plan C. Gainsharing plan D. Employee stock option plan 15. Which of the following is a false statement about the Fair Labor Standards Act? A. The FLSA permits a subminimum training wage equal to 85 percent of the minimum wage. B. The FLSA requires federal contractors to pay prevailing wage rates. C. The overtime rate under the FLSA is one and a half times the employee’s hourly rate, including any bonuses and piece-rate payments. D. Nonexempt employees are covered by FLSA and include most hourly workers. 16. An organization is adjusting pay to better match a local labor market in which the cost of living is rising sharply. These adjustments are called A. rank-and-file adjustments. B. green-circle rates. C. pay differentials. D. bonuses. 17. Which act permits a lower training wage, which employers may pay to workers under the age of 20 for a period of up to 90 days? A. ADA B. FMLA C. ERISA D. FLSA 18. Due to increasing diversity within the workplace, many employers are extending benefits to A. anyone living within the employee’s household. B. extended-family members. C. domestic partners. End of exam D. independent contractors. 19. Which of the following is a false statement about key jobs? A. Key jobs have many incumbents within the organization. B. Key jobs are common to many organizations. C. Key jobs are jobs on which it’s possible to obtain market-pay survey data. D. Key jobs are relatively stable in content. 20. Three of the following are vesting rights. Which is not a vesting right? A. The right to a pension at retirement B. A guarantee that the employer won’t switch the pension plan from defined-benefit to defined-contribution plan C. The right to a pension regardless of whether or not the employee remains with the employer until retirement D. In most cases, a waiting period of no more than five years or a three- to seven-year period, with 20 percent in the third and each year thereafter           Meeting Other HR Goals   Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer. 1. Under the Taft-Hartley Act, three of the following are unfair labor practices on the part of the union. Which is not an unfair labor practice on the part of the union, under the Taft-Hartley Act? A. Calling or visiting employees at home for the purpose of promoting union membership or activities B. Terminating an existing contract and striking for a new one without notifying the employer, the FMCS, and the state mediation service C. Mass picketing in such numbers that nonstriking employees physically can’t enter the workplace D. Threatening employees with physical injury or job loss if they don’t support union activities 2. Which of the following is a correct statement about inpatriates? A. Inpatriates are employees transferred from a company’s site in one state to another state within the United States. B. Inpatriates are employees from one division of the company being moved to another division. C. Inpatriates are foreign employees who come to the United States to work for the U.S.-based parent company. D. Inpatriates are employees from countries other than the parent country placed in facilities of other countries. 3. Which of the following is not a measure for an HRM audit for staffing? A. Treatment of applicants B. Fairness of existing job evaluation system in assigning grades and salaries C. Timeliness of referring qualified workers to line supervisors D. Anticipation of personnel needs 4. Which of the following is an advantage of a relational database? A. It helps people arrive at decisions that reflect expert knowledge. B. Users can file or retrieve information according to any field across different bases. C. Databases are stored in a central location. D. Information is stored in one large file. 5. High-performance work systems emphasize three of the following. Which is not emphasized by highperformance work systems? A. Career management B. Development C. Training D. Silo thinking 6. Which of the following is a false statement about international labor relations? A. Day-to-day decisions about labor relations are usually handled by each foreign subsidiary. B. U.S. organizations, in comparison with European organizations, exert more centralized control over labor relations in the various countries where they operate. C. In countries such as Germany, management has an incentive to build cooperative relationships because labor representatives participate in company decision-making activities and sit on companies’ boards of directors. D. Most U.S. organizations, in contrast to European organizations, bargain with a union representing an entire industry’s employees, rather than with local union. 7. Union membership in the United States peaked in the A. 1980s. B. 1960s. C. 1950s. D. 1990s. 8. Three typical questions asked for assessing candidates for overseas assignments about family considerations are among the following. Which is not a typical question about family considerations for an overseas assignment candidate? A. How many moves has the family made in the past among different cities or parts of the United States? B. How is each member of the family reacting to this possible move? C. What is the spouse’s goal in this move? D. Can the candidate work without supervision? 9. The Hofstede dimension that deals with the degree to which a culture prefers structured conditions is A. power distance. B. uncertainty avoidance. C. individualism. D. risk aversion. 10. Which of the following employee groups is most likely to be excluded by the NLRB from participating in organizing activities and being a member of the bargaining unit? A. Employees with certain supervisory duties B. Employees covered by multiple employers C. Employees who have been on strike for economic reasons for less than one year and who have been replaced by other employees D. Employees in multiple facilities within a single employer 11. Recruitment and selection activities within a high-performance organization include three of the following. Which is not a recruitment and selection activity within a high-performance organization? A. Selection methods that concentrate on identifying technical skills only B. Finding employees who are enthusiastic about and able to contribute to teamwork, empowerment, and knowledge sharing C. Finding employees who innovate, share ideas, and take initiative D. Selection methods that include group interviews, open-ended questions, and psychological tests 12. Which of the following statements about expert systems is false? A. Expert systems deliver high-quality decisions at a high cost. B. Expert systems can increase efficiency by enabling fewer or less-skilled employees to do work that otherwise would require many highly skilled employees. C. Expert systems provide consistency in decision making. D. Expert systems help avoid the errors that can result from fatigue and decision-making biases. 13. The most notable disadvantage for virtual expatriates is the A. isolation that comes with never returning to their home countries. B. difficulty they’ll experience in building relationships with host-country personnel. C. amount of time they must spend away from friends and family while on assignment. D. loss in income they’ll experience as a result of accepting their overseas assignment. 14. Which of the followin

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