Which of the following is a disorder that primarily involves a significant disturbance in a person’s emotional state?

1. Which of the following is a disorder that primarily involves a significant disturbance in a person’s emotional state?

a. osteoporosis

b. autism

c. spasticity

d. depressive and bipolar disorder

2. Which of the following is a symptom of major depressive disorder?

a. elated mood most of the day

b. increased interest in daily activities

c. insomnia or hypersomnia

d. reduced production of neurotransmitters

3. During his tenure as a prosecutor, Larson had once helped to book an innocent man in a murder trial. Following this incident he lost his appetite leading to weight loss and developed insomnia. Of late he has also become dysphoric and has developed suicidal tendencies. Identify the disorder from which Larson is suffering.

a. major depressive disorder

b. autism

c. bipolar disorder

d. cyclothymic disorder

4. Mary has been in a continual state of dysfunction that has kept her from feeling truly happy or well-adjusted. However, she has never had a full-blown depressive episode. Mary is most likely suffering from _____ disorder.

a. cyclothymic

b. dysthymic

c. bipolar

d. major depressive

5. The overwhelming feeling of sadness a depressed person feels is referred to as

a. euphoria.

b. elation.

c. dysphoria.

d. ecstasy.

6. Which of the following is a depressive disorder involving chronic depression of less intensity than a major depressive disorder?

a. autism

b. dysthymic disorder

c. bipolar disorder

d. cyclothymic disorder

7. Bipolar disorder was formerly referred to as

a. cyclothymic disorder.

b. manic depression.

c. euphoric-dysphoric disorder.

d. affective psychosis.

8. Jules has been suffering from a form of mood disorder. She experiences insomnia and feels low on energy at times and then at other times she seems to be very energetic and experiences a state of ecstasy. Identify the mood disorder affecting Jules.

a. major depressive disorder

b. bipolar disorder

c. dysthymic disorder

d. major depressive episode

9. In order to be diagnosed with

a. Bipolar II disorder one has to undergo one or more major depressive episodes.

b. Bipolar I disorder the period of elated mood should be extreme.

c. Bipolar II disorder one has to have at least one manic episode.

d. Bipolar I disorder the period of depression should not be extreme.

10. Clinicians are most likely to diagnose people who have four or more episodes of major depression, mania, hypomania, or mixed symptoms with

a. rapid-cycling form of bipolar disorder.

b. dysthymic disorder.

c. major depressive disorder.

d. hypothyroidism

11. Which of the following is a less severe form of bipolar disorder?

a. cyclothymic disorder

b. rapid cycling

c. dysthymic disorder

d. major depressive disorder

12. Based on numerous studies, comparing identical or monozygotic twins with fraternal or dizygotic twins, researcher’s concluded that genetic influences on major depressive disorder are in the range of

a. 6 to 12 percent.

b. 30 to 40 percent.

c. 50 to 66 percent.

d. 70 to 81 percent.

13. Which of the following disorders exhibits the strongest pattern of genetic inheritance?

a. major depressive disorder

b. dysthymic disorder

c. bipolar disorder

dParkinson’s disease

14. Which of the following is an effect of using SSRIs?

a. It increases the level of serotonin in the body.

b. It reduces the level of norepinephrine in the body.

c. It cures sexual dysfunction.

d. It keeps diabetes in check.

15. It takes approximately _____ weeks for antidepressant medications to have an effect on a patient’s mood.

a. 5 to 8

b. 30 to 40

c. 10 to 20

d. 2 to 6

16. The traditional treatment for bipolar disorder is

a. cortisol.

b. hydrocortisone.

c. collagen.

d. lithium carbonate.

17. _____ are the daily variations that regulate biological patterns such as sleep-wake cycles.

a. Circadian rhythms

b. Neuromodulations

c. Hypomanic episodes

d. Manic episodes

18. Early psychoanalytic theories of mood disorders proposed that

a. people with depressive disorders had suffered a loss early in their lives that a ffected them at a deep, intrapsychic level.

b. people are born with a predisposition that places them at risk for developing a psychological disorder if exposed to certain extremely stressful life experiences.

c. people with high levels of norepinephrine are at a high risk of developing mood disorders.

d. people with high levels of serotonin are at a high risk of developing mood disorders.

19. The increase in the frequency of behaviors that results because these actions produce pleasure is what Lewinsohn calls

a. cognitive restructuring.

b. response contingent positive reinforcement.

c. non-contingent continuous reinforcement.

d. vicarious reinforcement.

20. Leon is undergoing treatment for his depression. In the course of his treatment, his therapist encourages him to take up new ventures and tries to build up his confidence through positive reinforcement. This therapeutic technique is most likely based on the

a. cognitive perspective.

b. psychodynamic perspective.

c. biological perspective.

d. behavioral perspective.

21. “I got a 96% on this exam but the four I missed were easy. I must be stupid.” This statement shows that the speaker is affected by the cognitive distortion referred to by Beck as

a. selective abstraction.

b. dichotomous thinking.

c. catastrophizing.

d. overgeneralization.

22. Which of the following is true of the interpersonal therapy?

a. Compared to the other therapies, the interpersonal therapy proves to be most efficient for clients with personality disorders.

b. Interpersonal therapyinvolves applying electrical shock to the head of a person suffering from psychological disorders for the purpose of inducing therapeutically beneficial seizures.

c. Interpersonal therapy uses a combination of techniques, such as encouraging self-exploration, providing support, and providing feedback on the client’s ineffective social skills.

d. The first phase of interpersonal therapy involves formulating a treatment plan that focuses on the primary problem faced by the client.

23. The disorders which are characterized by intense, incapacitating fear and apprehension are called

a. somatoform disorders.

b. dissociative disorders.

c. anxiety disorders.

d. personality disorders.

24. Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in leaving one’s caregivers?

a. overanxiousdisorder

b. avoidantdisorder

c. separation anxiety disorder

d. panic disorder

25. _____ is a disorder originating in childhood in which an individual consciously refuses to talk.

a. Autism spectrum disorder

b. Expressive language disorder

c. Selective mutism

d. Childhood schizophrenia

26. If a person’s fear response to a specific situation or object is disproportionate to the actual threat posed by the stimulus, the individual is said to have a (n)

a. phobia.

b. compulsion.

c. delusion.

d. aversion.

27. Maisie has an extreme fear of heights. When she registers for classes at college, she makes a point of signing up for classes that are held on the first floor of the buildings. Maisie might be diagnosed as having

a. agoraphobia.

b. social anxiety disorder.

c. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

d. specific phobia.

28. The most effective antianxiety medications are called

a. neuroleptics.

b. amphetamines.

c. benzodiazepines.

d. narcotics.

29. Which theoretical perspective views the causes of phobias to be based on the individual’s faulty inferences and overgeneralizations?

a. cognitive-behavioral

b. humanistic

c. existential

d. psychoanalytic

30. The behavioral approach to treating phobias, which involves gradually exposing the client to the feared stimulus while the client practices relaxation exercises, is called

a. systematic desensitization.

b. flooding.

c. aversive conditioning.

d. relaxation training.

31. The anxiety of a person suffering from social anxiety disorder is essentially centered on

a. the fear of falling unconscious in a public place.

b. the desire to avoid humiliation in a gathering.

c. the feeling of claustrophobia when standing in a crowd.

d. the feeling of getting isolated and being lost in a mob.

32. Derek suddenly felt his hands and legs go numb and started shaking involuntarily while preparing for his high school final semester. The acuteness of the problem forced his parents to consult a clinician. When asked, the clinician was told that it was the first time Derek had suffered from any of these symptoms. Derek is most likely experiencing

a. a panic attack.

b. panic disorder.

c. post-traumatic stress disorder.

d. dissociative disorder.

33. Kaila is so intimidated by the possibility of having a panic attack that she stays home the majority of the time. If she does go out, she insists that one of her friends accompanies her in case she has a panic attack. In addition to having panic disorder, Kaila might also be described as being

a. hydrophobic.

b. agoraphobic.

c. claustrophobic.

d. arachnophobic.

34. Which disorder is characterized by the client’s dissatisfaction and delusional preoccupation with the idea that some part of his or her body is ugly or defective?

a. Briquet’s syndrome

b. psychalgia

c. bodydysmorphic disorder

d. disorder with uncontrolled body movements

35. Trichotillomania is a disorder involving the persistent urge to

a. pull out one’s own hair.

b. bite one’s own nails.

c. binge and then purge.

d. steal.

36. Mary washes her hands several times a day and still feels that her hands are unclean despite all the washing. This habit has caused Mary to be late on several occasions. Her symptoms are suggestive of

a. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

b. acute stress disorder.

c. specific phobia.

d. general anxiety disorder.

37. Which of the following is a cognitive-behavioral method designed to reduce obsessive thinking?

a. dream analysis

b. thought stopping

c. response blocking

d. negative reinforcement

38. In which disorder does a child have a severe disturbance in his or her ability to relate to others?

a. stereotypic movement disorder

b. reactive attachment disorder

c. separation anxiety disorder

d. overanxious disorder

39. Acute stress disorder is diagnosed _____; post-traumatic stress disorder is diagnosed _____.

a. soon after a traumatic event; if symptoms persist more than a month

b. if symptoms persist more than a month; soon after a traumatic event

c. in situations of civilian trauma only; in situations of military or combat trauma only

d. in situations where the individual is unable to recover from the anxiety associated with a traumatic life event; when there is no social isolation of the client.

40. Following a trauma, an individual is less vulnerable to develop PTSD if he or she

a. feels supported and understood.

b. feels angry or irritated.

c. isolates him/herself.

d. entertains thoughts of revenge.

41. Individuals with PTSD experience alterations in a particular portion of the brain which is responsible for

a. learning movements.

b. processing pain sensations.

c. performing autonomic functions.

d. consolidating memory.

42. The only FDI-approved antidepressants to treat people with PTSD are

a. benzodiazepines.

b. MAOIs.

c. respiridone.

d. SSRIs.

43. Carlos used to enjoy bowling, but since he returned from active duty, the sound of the ball hitting the pins and the sound of the pins falling, is bringing back vivid memories of combat. Carlos is experiencing

a. flashbacks.

b. delusions.

c. obsessions.

d. compulsions.

44. Regarding PTSD, positive psychology states that

a. acute stress disorder is a subcategory of PTSD.

b. people suffering from generalized anxiety disorder tend to acquire PTSD syndromes very quickly.

c. pharmacotherapy by the use of antidepressant is the only way to generate positive results.

d. trauma potentially allows clients to find positive interpretations of their experiences.

45. The Eye Movement Desensitization Reprocessing (EMDR) is a technique used by a clinician to treat clients suffering from

a. post-traumatic stress disorders.

b. generalized anxiety disorders.

c. social anxiety disorders.

d. agoraphobias.

The post Which of the following is a disorder that primarily involves a significant disturbance in a person’s emotional state? appeared first on homeworkhandlers.com.

Which of the following is not a basic process in learning?

QUESTION 1

Which of the following is not a basic process in learning?

Consolidation
Encoding
Retrieval
Transduction

QUESTION 2

When we use memory to perform a learned ability such as playing a musical instrument we are using _____memory.

QUESTION 3

The three successive events that are necessary for recall of a past event are , , and .

QUESTION 4

It has been proposed that PTSD can be reduced or eliminated by administering drugs to:

Accelerate forgetting
Block the effects of emotional stress on memory
Inhibit behavioral sensitization
Reduce frontal lobe activity

QUESTION 5

The most striking impairment suffered by H.M. is:

Prosopagnosia
Anterograde amnesia
Retrograde amnesia
Episodic amnesia

QUESTION 6

Memories that we are consciously aware that we are retrieving are known as _____memories.

QUESTION 7

Which memory store holds the largest number of items?

Iconic memory
Short-term memory
Intermediate-term memory
Long-term memory

QUESTION 8

The ability of elderly people to retrieve certain memories (but not others) seems particularly related to the:

Presence of memory cues
Absence of delays between learning and recall
Presence of rewards
Specificity of the items to be retrieved from memory

QUESTION 9

Research indicates that emotional enhancement of memory:

Cannot be shown in laboratory research
Occurs in humans but not in nonhuman animals
Involves adrenergic stress hormones
Lasts only briefly

QUESTION 10

Declarative memory is said to deal with:

“How”
“Why”
“Where”
“What”

QUESTION 11

Which of the following does not occur in the continuum of mammalian color vision?

Excellent trichromatic color vision
Robust dichromatic color vision
Feeble dichromatic vision of species that have few cones
Total lack of wavelength discrimination

QUESTION 12

The dorsal stream system of visual processing is said to specialize in processing information about:

“What”
“Who”
“Where”
“When”

QUESTION 13

Rods and cones in the retina are analogous to:

Merkle’s discs in the skin
The tympanic membrane of the ear
Odor receptor cells in the nasal epithelium
All of the above

QUESTION 14

When you are gazing at near objects (such as this question), the lens of the eye is:

Relaxed
Stretched and thinned
Thickened
Concave

QUESTION 15

Which of the following is the correct route for the passage of visual information?

Optic tract, optic nerve, optic radiations
Optic radiations, optic nerve, optic tract
Optic nerve, optic radiations, optic tract
Optic nerve, optic tract, optic radiations

QUESTION 16

The _____neuron is active when an individual observes another individual making a particular movement.

QUESTION 17

Because the visual system integrates stimuli over time, its performance is relatively:

Fast, at the expense of sensitivity
Slow but sensitive
Fast and sensitive
Sensitive, at the expense of acuity

QUESTION 18

Which of the following is the dominant modern theory of color discrimination?

Helmholtz trichromatic hypothesis
Hering opponent-process hypothesis
De Valois hypothesis of spectrally opponent cells
Zeki hypothesis of cortical color processing

QUESTION 19

Retinal receptor cells release the neurotransmitter _____.

QUESTION 20

The brightest light at which we can see is about _____ times as intense as the dimmest light at which we can see.

100,000
10 million
1 billion
10 billion

QUESTION 21

In human males, sexual orientation is probably determined:

Around puberty
By age four
By hormonal variations
By the sex chromosome carried by the father’s sperm

QUESTION 22

The stages of reproductive behavior include all of the following except:

Appetitive behavior
Sexual attraction
Organizational behavior
Copulation

QUESTION 23

The internal sex organs:

Require hormonal stimulation in both males and females for proper development
Are bisexual early in development, unlike the gonads
Develop from the müllerian system in males
None of the above

QUESTION 24

The first standardized information about human sex behavior was obtained by:

Beach
Kinsey
Masters and Johnson
Money and Ehrhardt

QUESTION 25

Which of the following, if true, would indicate that aromatization does not play a role in sexual differentiation of humans?

There are no sex differences in humans.
The sensitive period for humans is postnatal.
Human estrogen does not cross the placenta.
Human α-fetoprotein does not bind estrogens.

QUESTION 26

Research indicates that treating postmenopausal women with low doses of _____can revive sexual interest.

androgen
estrogen
progesterone
cortisol

QUESTION 27

Which of the following are the organs derived from the wolffian duct system?

Seminal vesicles, vas deferens, testes, epididymis, prostate
Seminal vesicles, vas deferens, prostate, epididymis
Seminal vesicles, epididymis, prostate, testes
Seminal vesicles, vas deferens, epididymis

QUESTION 28

Among humans, the only behavior that is displayed exclusively by one sex is _____.

QUESTION 29

Which of the following can regulate sex determination?

Paternal hormones
Temperature
Genes
Both b and c

QUESTION 30

Müllerian ducts develop to form:

Internal male reproductive structures
Labia
Internal female reproductive structures
Ovaries

QUESTION 31

One of the reasons we know that insulin is not the only cue for satiety is that:

Insulin does not rise after a meal.
Low doses of insulin do not stop eating.
High doses of insulin initiate eating.
Untreated diabetic patients are not hungry.

QUESTION 32

Which of the following animals does not regulate its body weight?

A rat with a recent LH lesion
A rat recovering from an LH lesion
A rat provided with a high-fat diet
A rat provided with a low-fat diet

QUESTION 33

About _____% of the heat produced by a human at rest is generated by the brain.

20
33
50
75

QUESTION 34

The body stores glucose for later use after first converting it to a more complex form called _____.

QUESTION 35

People suffering from anorexia nervosa:

Have no appetite
Think about food a great deal
Have a neurological disease
Gain weight

QUESTION 36

A principal advantage that ectotherms have over endotherms is that ectotherms:

Eat less
Eat more
Run faster
Jump higher

QUESTION 37

Which of the following is not considered a motivated behavior?

Taking shelter in a storm
Eating
Drinking
Breathing

QUESTION 38

The relationship of basal metabolism to body mass across species does not hold for:

Very large mammals
Microorganisms
An animal that is food-deprived or not at its target weight
None of the above; the relationship holds for all of these groups

QUESTION 39

When a person stops producing insulin early in life, from which type of diabetes does he or she suffer?

Diabetes insipidus
Type I
Type II
Congenital

QUESTION 40

A primary tenet of homeostasis is:

Repetition
Redundancy
Body temperature maintenance
Water balance

QUESTION 41

Growth hormone secretion is high during _____sleep.

QUESTION 42

Nightmares are associated with:

Stage 1 SWS
Stage 2 SWS
Stages 3 and 4 SWS
REM sleep

QUESTION 43

If animals that are normally seasonal are kept in constant conditions in a laboratory and receive no information about changes in day length or temperature, their circannual rhythms:

Persist, with a period of 365 days
Become free-running
Disappear
Persist only in females

QUESTION 44

If the SCN is detached from the rest of the brain by a series of knife cuts, its rhythmicity:

Disappears
Becomes abnormally short
Persists
Becomes infradian

QUESTION 45

The incidence of insomnia is greatest in _____ in general, and in both men and women in _____.

women; the later stages of life
men; the later stages of life
women; middle age
men; middle age

QUESTION 46

The attacks of sleep that occur in narcolepsy are characterized by:

The immediate onset of deep SWS
The immediate onset of REM
A usual pattern of SWS and REM sleep
The lack of REM

QUESTION 47

Entrainment of circadian rhythms refers to the process by which:

The periodic oscillations of an animal’s activity are dampened
The length a typical day is extended
The rhythms of an animal’s activities are synchronized and shifted
A free-running process is established

QUESTION 48

The most powerful stimulus for resetting the circadian clock is _____.

QUESTION 49

_____sleep is characterized by a rapid EEG of low amplitude.

QUESTION 50

Which neurotransmitter has been especially implicated in the generation of rhythms within the SCN?

Acetylcholine
Serotonin
GABA
None of the above

QUESTION 51

Mark and Ervin have argued that some human violence is:

Related to temporal lobe seizure activity
Socially inspired and shaped
Related to the XXY chromosome pattern
Resistant to surgical intervention

QUESTION 52

Which of the following statements is most true about cross-cultural observations of facial expressions?

All facial expressions are interpreted similarly across cultures.
Explicit cultural training is needed to interpret facial expressions.
Facial expressions are subject to culture-specific display rules.
Only the static features of facial expression are culture-invariant.

QUESTION 53

From the perspective of evolutionary psychology, emotions can be viewed as _____ programs that organize behavior in adaptive ways.

QUESTION 54

Which of the following is not an attribute of the type A personality?

High competitive drive
Submission to authority
Impatience
Hostility

QUESTION 55

Which of the following transmitters has been especially implicated in the control of aggression?

Acetylcholine
Substance P
Serotonin
Dopamine

QUESTION 56

The device that is used to measure bodily responses to stress is called a _____.

QUESTION 57

In a normal young subject, the presence of a friend during a demanding task:

Places strong physiological demands on the subject
Provokes unregulated hostility and physiological arousal
Increases blood pressure
Lessens the magnitude of cardiovascular response to this type of stress

QUESTION 58

Papez’s circuit provides a model of the relationships of different regions in the limbic system involved in:

Facial expression
Autonomic response specificity
Emotional expression
The neural control of violence

QUESTION 59

With increased levels of corticosteroids, the responses of the immune system to pathogens such as viruses is:

Inhibited
Enhanced
Unchanged
Affected slightly

QUESTION 60

Patients with Parkinson’s disease show which of the following changes of emotional expression?

They cannot move the face voluntarily.
They lose spontaneous emotional expression.
They can show expressions of happiness only.
They have profound lesions of the facial nucleus.

QUESTION 61

Split-brain individuals are those who have undergone surgery to cut the  as a treatment for .

QUESTION 62

Prosopagnosia is the inability to:

Identify objects by touch
Learn the names of objects that are seen
Recognize faces
Distinguish different patterns of visual stimuli

QUESTION 63

Broca’s aphasia is usually associated with lesions of:

The angular gyrus
The left inferior frontal region
Wernicke’s area
The left temporal lobe

QUESTION 64

An exciting future treatment for brain injury may be the use of [_____] to replace the damaged neurons.

QUESTION 65

The left visual field is projected to:

The left hemisphere
Both hemispheres
The right hemisphere
The hemisphere associated with handedness

QUESTION 66

Improvements in language ability following a stroke may develop from a:

Shift to right-hemisphere control of language
Profound regrowth of connections in the left hemisphere
Subcortical control of language
Shift to frontal cortical control of language

QUESTION 67

According to some studies, stroke patients given _____ therapy can show about a 75% return of normal use of a paralyzed arm within a relatively short period of time.

melodic intonation
constraint-induced-movement
edema reduction
intense massage

QUESTION 68

Widespread neuronal death occurs in stroke apparently as a consequence of:

Too little activity of neurons
Too much excitation of neurons
A loss of connections from other regions
Pathological changes in glial cells

QUESTION 69

A patient who produces seemingly fluent but largely unintelligible speech and has poor comprehension of verbal material is most likely suffering from _____ aphasia.

Wernicke’s
Broca’s
conduction
global

QUESTION 70

Patients with aphasia sometimes produce entirely new, nonsensical words called:

Nonfluent speech items
Agraphisms
Neologisms
Anomias

QUESTION 71

Which of the following does not belong with the others?

Semicircular canal
Middle canal
Tympanic canal
Vestibular canal

QUESTION 72

The auditory system is believed to have evolved from the  system, which in turn is thought to have evolved from the  system.

QUESTION 73

The phenomenon of onset _____ and the formation of a sound _____by the head allow for the localization of sound in space.

disparity; shadow
disparity; box
similarity; shadow
similarity; box

QUESTION 74

The inferior colliculus projects auditory impulses to the:

Cochlear nucleus
Superior olivary complex
Medial geniculate nucleus
Primary auditory cortex

QUESTION 75

Hearing may be partially restored in deaf people through the use of devices called _____.

QUESTION 76

The lowest level at which impulses from the two ears interact is the:

Cochlear nucleus
Medial geniculate
Olivary nucleus
Inferior colliculus

QUESTION 77

The idea that we use both intensity differences and differences in the time of arrival of auditory signals to localize sounds is called the _____theory.

QUESTION 78

Deafness that arises from problems with the middle ear is called _____deafness.

QUESTION 79

For humans, the minimal discriminable frequency difference between two tones is about:

20 Hz for sounds up to 2000 Hz
2 Hz for sounds up to 2000 Hz
10 Hz for sounds less than 20,000 Hz
10 Hz for sounds greater than 2000 Hz

QUESTION 80

Within the nucleus laminaris of birds, bineural cells act as _____to detect the location of sound in space.

space detectors
coincidence detectors
place engineers
None of the above

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Answer the following multiple choice questions by highlighting the answer.

  •  It is a worksheet quiz. No paragraphs are required. It just requires that the right answer is chosen.
  • Searching for ACCURATE answers. Do not rush and complete.
  • It is 11 questions long.
  • Simply HIGHLIGHT the correct answers using the color scheme for letters.
  • It is a fast, simple assignment.
  • Please CAREFULLY review the document before agreeing to complete.
  • REQUIRING COMPLETION IN 2-3 HOURS ONLY.

Capstone Quiz

Answer the following multiple choice questions by highlighting the answer. There is one correct answer per question.

1. Which historical perspective stated that psychologists should study the different components of the mind independently, because to understand how the conscious mind works, we must understand all of its individual parts completely?

a. Structuralism

b. Functionalism

c. Behaviorism

d. Gestalt

e. Psychodynamic

2. Edward Titchener used a method for studying the mind that became popular during the Structuralist period. The method, called _____, required trained participants to report their conscious mental experiences to the investigator. For example, if a person was angry, they would report all of their experiences during the time they were angry.

a. empiricism

b. functionalism

c. contemplation

d. introspection

e. conscientiousness

3. A potential problem with ___________ research is _____________.

a. longitudinal; cohort differences

b. cross-sectional; subject attrition

c. cross-sectional; cohort differences

d. longitudinal; random assignment

e. cross-sectional; maturation

4. Research by _____________ legitimized psychological science when it became the first psychological research presented as evidence to the United States Supreme Court.

a. Muzafer Sherif

b. Irving Janis

c. Mamie Clark

d. Phillip Zimbardo

e. Kurt Lewin

5. To determine whether changing one variable like education will produce changes in another like income, we must conduct _____________________ research.

a. survey

b. correlational

c. experimental

d. statistical

e. basic

6. Mary is studying the effect of high blood sugar on intelligence test performance. Which of these might be her hypothesis?

a. People should not eat high sugar foods prior to IQ testing.

b. High sugar foods increase energy and improve IQ test performance.

c. People who eat high sugar foods before testing will have lower scores on an IQ test than people who do not.

d. Roughly 75% of people had lower IQ test scores after eating high sugar snacks right before testing.

e. Individuals should not be given high sugar snacks prior to IQ testing.

7. Which of the following research methods would be most effective in demonstrating whether the presence of others improves our performance of a task?

a. An experiment

b. A correlational study

c. A survey

d. A field study

e. An historical study

8. Which of the following psychological studies would you expect to have similar results cross-culturally?

a. Milgram’s study of obedience to authority

b. Asch’s conformity study

c. Study of the symptoms of mental illness

d. Study of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

e. Study of parenting styles

9. According to the APA Ethical Standards, psychologists must inform participants of the nature of the research; and that they are free to participate, decline to participate, or withdraw from the research at any time. These requirements, among others, are necessary to ensure the participants’ ______.

a. anonymity

b. risk level

c. informed consent

d. debriefing

e. risk/benefit ratio

10. Making an ethical decision involves

a. simply applying a clear and definitive set of guidelines for ethical research

b. deciding that an ethical decision is effective if it makes you happy

c. identifying what ethical guidelines are relevant in a situation and what is at stake for all parties involved

d. maintaining the anonymity of the researchers

e. maintaining the anonymity of the participants

11. According to the APA Ethical Standards, who is ultimately responsible for the ethical conduct of research done in psychology?

a. The Institutional Review Board

b. The individual researchers

c. The sponsoring institution, such as the university

d. The assistants who test the participants

e. The funding agency

Copyright © XXXX by University of Phoenix. All rights reserved.

Copyright © 2014 by University of Phoenix. All rights reserved.

The post Answer the following multiple choice questions by highlighting the answer. appeared first on homeworkhandlers.com.

Respond to the following questions in  at lease 1,250 words.

Respond to the following questions in  at lease 1,250 words. APA format and References CITES are to be APA format as well

  1. Why is this an ethical dilemma? Which APA Ethical Principles help frame the nature of the dilemma?

     

     

     

  2. To what extent, if any, should Dr. Vaji consider Leo’s ethnicity in his deliberations? Would the dilemma be addressed differently if Leo self-identified as non-Hispanic White, Hispanic, on non-Hispanic Black?

     

     

     

  3. How are APA Ethical Standards 1.08, 3.04, 3.05, 3.09, 7.04, 7.05, and 17.05 relevant to this case? Which other standards might apply?

 

 

4. What are Dr. Vaji’s ethical alternatives for resolving this dilemma? Which alternative best reflects the Ethics Code aspirational principle and enforceable standard, as well as legal standards and obligations to stakeholders?

 

 

5. What steps should Dr. Vaji take to ethically implement his decision and monitor its effects?

 

 

Reference

 

Fisher, C. B. (2013). Decoding the ethics code: A practical guide for psychologists. Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage.

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